Not quite, while I'm a bit agnostic on "adaptive" (especially since that has a technically meaning in genetics that I'd likely dispute), but my core argument is that we have surprisingly little reason to consider the process generating moral change so far to be normative.
but my core argument is that we have surprisingly little reason to consider the process generating moral change so far to be normative.
I'd agree with that.
I thought it would be good to play the irrationality game again. Let's do it!