Yes, log(x) is an isomorphism from the positive reals as a multiplicative group to the real numbers as an additive group. As a result, it is only an isomorphism from multiplicative probabilities to additive log-probabilities if you assume that 0 is not a probability to begin with, which is circular logic.
So, pray tell: When are P=0 and P=1 applicable? Don't you get paradoxes? What prior allows you to attain them?
I am really genuinely curious what sort of proofs you have access to that I do not.
I was very interested in the discussions and opinions that grew out of the last time this was played, but find digging through 800+ comments for a new game to start on the same thread annoying. I also don't want this game ruined by a potential sock puppet (whom ever it may be). So here's a non-sockpuppetiered Irrationality Game, if there's still interest. If there isn't, downvote to oblivion!
The original rules:
Enjoy!