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Manfred comments on Cultural norms in choice of mate - Less Wrong Discussion

-14 [deleted] 10 July 2012 08:18AM

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Comment author: Manfred 10 July 2012 09:30:29AM 8 points [-]

who benefits from this norm [older women]

Tsk, tsk. The norms were set up by a culture of powerful men, in order to benefit powerful men. Who benefits from the changing norm? Anyone who isn't a powerful man.

Did you ever watch that film A Beautiful Mind? Spreading out romantic advances is the pareto optimum. If nobody is sleeping with the older women, then also nobody is sleeping with the non-powerful men. Changes in sexual patterns can be thought of as victory for the average human.

And it's certainly not all sunshine and roses for the young women. Power imbalances in relationships are a risk factor for things like marital rape, controlling behavior, and general bad stuff. Oh and there's the whole "treated like property for large chunks of history" part. And as we go a bit younger, do you know what a fistula is? Yeah, just... I'm really glad the sexual norms have changed.

Comment author: TraderJoe 10 July 2012 09:52:44AM *  -2 points [-]

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Comment author: gjm 10 July 2012 10:23:22AM 5 points [-]

Given that choice of partners is [roughly] a zero-sum game

Would you care to expand on that? It doesn't seem particularly plausible to me. Different people have genuinely substantially different preferences, which means that the most obvious reason for it to be a zeroish-sum game doesn't apply.

Comment author: TraderJoe 10 July 2012 10:34:19AM *  1 point [-]

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Comment author: gjm 10 July 2012 10:52:55AM 5 points [-]

The reason why I think choice of partners isn't very close to zero-sum is precisely that I don't think there is a single scale of desirability; different people have different preferences, and a change in partner assignment can easily make everyone happier or everyone less happy.

Comment author: TraderJoe 10 July 2012 11:08:29AM *  0 points [-]

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Comment author: maia 10 July 2012 01:41:11PM 3 points [-]

No. The point is that desirability is subjective, and therefore "winning" or "losing" at desirability is a two-place word.

Comment author: RobertLumley 10 July 2012 02:04:16PM 1 point [-]

What about a general shift for males to be more heterosexual than homosexual? Not saying this happens, but your statement obviously can be false. It is possible for all women to win.

Comment author: Desrtopa 10 July 2012 02:56:17PM *  4 points [-]

I'm not sure that would be a net win for all women. Suppose a similar proportion of women are lesbians to the proportion of men who are gay, and if more men were straight instead of gay, lesbians would face increased competition for bisexual partners.

Comment author: RobertLumley 10 July 2012 11:44:49PM 1 point [-]

That is an excellent point. I didn't notice this since we've (for the entire post) operated under pretty restrictive heteronormativity. It wouldn't be a win for all women, but it would be a win for all women that we've been talking about.

Comment author: Manfred 10 July 2012 11:41:55PM 0 points [-]

I'm not totally sure what you mean by "wins" and "loses" here - you seem to mean increasing or decreasing some sort of relative attractiveness (to the average potential mate? To your definition of beauty, which seems universal?), which would then be zero-sum for whatever group it's normalized over.

But just because something is called winning, doesn't mean you can rely on it to describe human behavior - humans have a much more complicated set of motivations than "maximize relative attractiveness."

Comment author: [deleted] 12 July 2012 12:02:21AM 0 points [-]

Given that choice of partners is [roughly] a zero-sum game

How so? AFAICT it's entirely possible for World A to have a higher fraction of people experiencing long-term involuntary celibacy than World B.