You're looking at Less Wrong's discussion board. This includes all posts, including those that haven't been promoted to the front page yet. For more information, see About Less Wrong.

ArisKatsaris comments on Could evolution have selected for moral realism? - Less Wrong Discussion

2 Post author: John_Maxwell_IV 27 September 2012 04:25AM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (53)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 05 October 2012 11:08:22AM *  1 point [-]

I think the only meaning of moral realism can be that those things which I conclude are morally real can be enforced on others,

A moral statement M might perhaps say: "I ought do X." Agreeing perfectly in the moral universal validity and reality and absolute truth of M still doesn't take you one step closer to "I ought force others to do X.", nor even to "I am allowed to force others to do X.".

Real-life examples might be better:
Surely you can understand that a person might both believe "I oughtn't do drugs" and also "The government oughtn't force me not to do drugs."?
And likewise "I ought give money to charity" is a different proposition than "I ought force others to give money to charity"?

That's just from the libertarian perspective, but even the christian perspective says things like "Bless those who curse you. Pray for those who hurt you." it doesn't say "Force others not to curse you, force others not to hurt you". (Christendom largely abandoned that of course once it achieved political power, but that's a different issue...) The pure-pacifist response to violence is likewise pacifism. It isn't "Force pacifism on others".

There's a long history of moral realism that knows how to distinguish between "I ought X" and "I ought force X on others"

"Because the essence of something being immoral is you ARE supposed to do something about it, I would maintain"

The essense of something being immoral is that one oughtn't do it. Just that.

EDIT TO ADD: Heh, just thinking a bit further about it. Let me mathematize what you said a bit. You're effectively thinking of an inference rule which is as follows.

R1: For any statement M(n):"You ought X" present in the morally-real set, the statement M(n+1):"You ought force others to X" is also in the morally real set.

Such a inference rule (which I do not personally accept) would have horrifying repercussions, because of it's infinitely extending capacity. For example by starting with a supposed morally real statement:
M(1): You ought visit your own mother in the hospital.
it'd then go a bit like this.
M(2): You ought force others to visit their mothers in the hospital.
M(3). You ought force others to in turn force others to visit their mothers in the hospital.
...and then...
M(10). You ought establish a vast bureaurcracy of forcing others to establish other bureaucracies in charge of forcing people to visit their mothers in the hospital.
...or even
M(100). Genocide on those who don't believe in vast bureaucracy-establishing bureaucracies!

Heh, I can see why treating R1 as an axiom you find horror in the concept of morally real statements -- you resolve the problem by thinking the morally real set is empty, so that no further such statements can be added. I just don't accept R1 as an axiom at all.