Where do you see variances in the basic conception of property rights vary as though genetic and not cultural?
I never said anything about variance. Due to the physiological unity of humankind there may not be very much variance in the genetic component.
Look at my analogy with language: people learn the language of their parents, but that doesn't mean language ability has no genetic basis.
I see different ideas of the basic concept of property rights when I look in the history of anthropology. Since those differences faded quickly during cultural interactions. From that I conclude that property rights divergently evolved, and subsequently converged, faster than genetic mechanisms would imply possible.
Today's post, Ethical Inhibitions was originally published on 19 October 2008. A summary (taken from the LW wiki):
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