Without looking at the details: I regard Scandinavian countries as the 'peak' or ceiling for the US, since they have invested heavily in health and education in ways the US haven't and which we can see in other metrics like height and longevity. (The specifics don't matter here, I think, whether the US is being dragged down by minorities or this is intrinsic to wealth inequality or whatever.)
Moving on to the US: his use of averages is interesting, but this doesn't tell me too much - 2006 was a while ago, and mightn't there be falls or plateaus? And on what base is this increase coming, and how is it distributed? If the Flynn effect is operating only in lower IQ ranges, as has long been suggested since stuff like better nutrition would then handily account for it, this has no real relevance to questions of cutting-edge science, which is done pretty much solely by >120 IQ ranges.
The British example really confuses me, because I was under the distinct impression that one of Flynn's researches has been on how the British Flynn effect has stopped and reversed (specifically, "Requiem for nutrition as the cause of IQ gains: Raven's gains in Britain 1938–2008" Flynn 2009).
China is an interesting example and a potential counter-example, but my basic question is this: the age frontier has been increasing over the 20th century, the century in which another very smart East Asian country grew from poverty to one of the richest nations around and invested commensurate amounts into R&D, winning 16 Nobels (including non-STEM). I mean Japan, of course.
(Chinese plagiarism is a serious concern, as are general cultural critiques of 'unoriginality', but before I rested any claims on that, I'd want to know whether there were similar issues in America or Europe or Japan especially - whether there really is a difference in kind, or just a difference in stage of development. Plagiarism/unoriginality may just be teething problems, if you will.)
So if Japan's own development & Flynn effect did not - apparently - reverse the age frontier, why do you expect China to reverse it?
Moving on to the US: his use of averages is interesting, but this doesn't tell me too much - 2006 was a while ago, and mightn't there be falls or plateaus?
It's always possible, but I'm unware of subsequent standardization samples showing that.
And on what base is this increase coming, and how is it distributed?
Not sure, I haven't seen US data for that in Flynn's book. I've only seen details about the low vs. high ends of the distribution for Britain.
...The British example really confuses me, because I was under the distinct impression that one of Flyn
From Gene Expression by Razib Khan who some of you may also know from the old gnxp site or perhaps from his BHTV debate with Eliezer.
Link to original post.