Given this community's decidedly unfirm grasp on most technical concepts from political science and moral philosophy, I don't think we can assume this. "gwern knows about topic X" is unfortunately not a reliable indicator of the LW knowledge base generally.
Hm... Well, in that case, I'm referring mostly to A Farewell To Alms (available on libgen.info) where he lays out research indicating that in England, Qing China, and Tokugawa Japan, the rich did indeed outreproduce the poor. His recent papers on surname social mobility over centuries in England are interesting but I forget whether they bear on the issue more than AFTA did.
I recently read an article by Steve Sailer that reminded me about something I have been puzzled by for a long time. Relevant paragraphs:
Poor people having fewer children means that the children have more resources available per capita making the children better off. Rich people having more children actually increases equality in society since it reduces the per capita resource advantage their children have. Rich people giving to their children is also one of the few cases where the redistribution of wealth doesn't reduce incentives for wealth creation. Rich people care about their children too.
Since programs aimed at reducing teen pregnancy rates do seem to have had some effect, we known something like this is possible without being horrible to the potential parents it targets.
Yet a policy of "poor people should have fewer children, rich people more" sounds heartless despite increasing general welfare both by making poor children better off and by reducing the privilege of rich children thus increasing equality which we seem to think is ceteris paribus a good thing.
Why is that?
Edit: To test the source of the reader's intuiton (assuming he shares it with me), I encourage the consideration of two interesting scenarios that may depart from reality.