What I was saying is "I'm in favor of this, depending on how it's implemented" feels suspicious, as a statement. Not in terms of your particular motives for saying it, but in terms of the underlying thought process (it's a phrasing I've heard, and used, quite a number of times in a variety of similar contexts). I hadn't thought about it quite like that until I saw it in this thread, though: the statement is very nearly meaningless. The hedging doesn't so much seem like a realistic set of qualifications to the statement "I endorse this" because there's no analysis; it looks a lot more like leaving onself a line of argumentative retreat. "I'm for that, unless it becomes so wildly unpopular later that I feel the need to retract the statement for social signalling reasons."
The comment about the War on Terror is just me grounding that speculative statement in terms of real, existing means for enacting and enforcing policy in the real world. Those existing means are just loaded with perverse incentives, conflict of interest, signal loss, mission creep and other stuff, such that they can turn even uncontroversial, clearly beneficial goals ("suppress a certain class of risk") into something Orwellian and nightmarish. So saying "I'm for this, depending on how it's implemented" seems to ignore that in any realistic case it's quite likely to be implemented quite badly, which makes the hedge feel more like a line-of-retreat, left instinctively, than a meaningful statement about the limits of your confidence or support for the idea.
the statement is very nearly meaningless. The hedging doesn't so much seem like a realistic set of qualifications to the statement "I endorse this" because there's no analysis;
I agree that statements of the form "I'm in favor of a policy towards X, though a lot depends of the implementation" can often be pretty hollow - except that in this case I don't expect everybody to recognize X as a worthwhile goal, so it's a way to keep the discussion about abstract goals rather than concrete policies. If people don't agree about the goals, di...
I recently read an article by Steve Sailer that reminded me about something I have been puzzled by for a long time. Relevant paragraphs:
Poor people having fewer children means that the children have more resources available per capita making the children better off. Rich people having more children actually increases equality in society since it reduces the per capita resource advantage their children have. Rich people giving to their children is also one of the few cases where the redistribution of wealth doesn't reduce incentives for wealth creation. Rich people care about their children too.
Since programs aimed at reducing teen pregnancy rates do seem to have had some effect, we known something like this is possible without being horrible to the potential parents it targets.
Yet a policy of "poor people should have fewer children, rich people more" sounds heartless despite increasing general welfare both by making poor children better off and by reducing the privilege of rich children thus increasing equality which we seem to think is ceteris paribus a good thing.
Why is that?
Edit: To test the source of the reader's intuiton (assuming he shares it with me), I encourage the consideration of two interesting scenarios that may depart from reality.