You're looking at Less Wrong's discussion board. This includes all posts, including those that haven't been promoted to the front page yet. For more information, see About Less Wrong.

gwern comments on How much to spend on a high-variance option? - Less Wrong Discussion

9 Post author: RolfAndreassen 03 January 2013 06:38PM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (36)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: gwern 04 January 2013 04:01:24PM 2 points [-]

What I get as a result is that if I have free choice on any bet at any odds and chances I should, in total, invest more than I have.

If you invoke infinities or indefinite sets of bets, it shouldn't surprise you that regular results might not apply: if you decide to invest in a bet of n at 99% odds of doubling, wouldn't it be even better to invest n at 99% odds of tripling? Or even better than that, invest n at 99.9% odds of tripling? Or no, invest n+1 at 99.9% odds of tripling! I'm not sure why you'd expect anything useful from a KC or a variant with such arbitrary inputs.

One obvious fix is to limit the odds and probabilites to realistic values but that seems quite arbitrary.

It does?

Comment author: Metus 04 January 2013 04:13:57PM 0 points [-]

You are right.

It does seem arbitrary because for sufficiently high intervals for p and b the integral will exceed 1, that is allocation of all my cash and I do not know how to interpret this result.