First, I second the other's requests to define "exist".
Second, I don't understand the arguments.
But the identity of indistinguishables does apply to sets: indistinguishable sets are identical. Properties determine sets, so you can’t define a proper subset of brutely distinguishable things.
"Let A and B be brutely distinguishable points. Define the sets M and N as M = {A, B} and N = {B}. N is a proper subset of M."
What I have done wrong in the preceding quotation? It seems like something a mathematician could easily say.
To show that the existence of an actually existing infinite set leads to contradiction, assume the existence of an infinite set of brutely distinguishable points. Now another point pops into existence. The former and latter sets are indistinguishable, yet they aren’t identical. The proviso that the points themselves are indistinguishable allows the sets to be different yet indistinguishable when they’re infinite, proving they can’t be infinite.
The frequency of heads and of tails is then infinite, so the relative frequency is undefined.
The frequentist definition of probability says that probability is the limit of relative frequencies, which is the limit of (the number of occurrences divided by the number of trials), which is not equal to (limit of the number of occurences) divided by (limit of the number of trials). Note the positions of the brackets.
The sequence {2n/n} = {2/1, 4/2, 6/3, 8/4, ... } = {2, 2, 2, ...} has an obvious well defined limit, even if the limits of both {2n} and {n} are infinite.
A note about formatting: consider not copying a text from a word processor or a web browser directly to the LW post editor. The editor is "smart" and recognises the original font size and type and grey background color and whatever else and imports it to the post, which therefore looks ugly. I'd suggest copying to a Notepad/gedit-style editor first which kills the formatting and then to LW. (And emphasis is usually marked by italics, not red.)
Thank your for the astute response.
1.You say that the points are brutely distinguishable and later you say that they are indistinguishable, which nevertheless you hold to be different properties.
The points are brutely distinguishable, but the sets aren't.
...2.Why are the sets indistinguishable? Although I don't particularly understand what predicates you allow for brutely distinguishable entities, it seems possible to have X = set of all brutely distinguishable points (from some class) and Y = set of all brutely distinguishable points except one. It i
[Crossposted]
Initially attracted to Less Wrong by Eliezer Yudkowsky's intellectual boldness in his "infinite-sets atheism," I've waited patiently to discover its rationale. Sometimes it's said that our "intuitions" speak for infinity or against, but how could one, in a Kahneman-appropriate manner, arrive at intuitions about whether the cosmos is infinite? Intuitions about infinite sets might arise from an analysis of the concept of actually realized infinities. This is a distinctively philosophical form of analysis and one somewhat alien to Less Wrong, but it may be the only way to gain purchase on this neglected question. I'm by no means certain of my reasoning; I certainly don't think I've settled the issue. But for reasons I discuss in this skeletal argument, the conceptual—as opposed to the scientific or mathematical—analysis of "actually realized infinities" has been largely avoided, and I hope to help begin a necessary discussion.
1. The actuality of infinity is a paramount metaphysical issue.
2. The principle of the identity of indistinguishables applies to physics and to sets, not to everything conceivable.
3. Arguments against actually existing infinite sets.
A. Argument based on brute distinguishability.
B. Argument based on probability as limiting relative frequency.
4. The nonexistence of actually realized infinite sets and the principle of the identity of indistinguishable sets together imply the Gold model of the cosmos.