Skimming through the methodology section of the paper, the experimental design is really dubious. I think what it shows is that subjects can be trained to overcome the endowment effect (if it exists), not that it doesn't exist as such. Specifically, subjects were given 14 rounds of paid practice (in two of the three experiments), which is, frankly, a lot. (The results of the experiment they were not given the practice were broadly similar, admittedly.) This was also after the trading mechanism was explained to them at some length with examples, which may have prompted them to think more strategically or otherwise think more like a trader than normal or gotten them to learn how to actually obtain good payoffs. That said, maybe those parts were reasonable, but this part sure doesn't seem to be (paper page 539):
Approximately half the subjects acted as sellers and approximately half acted as buyers. All subjects were handed a mug before the start of the round. Sellers were told that they owned the mug. Buyers were told that they could inspect the mug but they did not own it.
As far as I understand the endowment effect, this little procedure would indeed completely (approximately) eliminate it on its own, because both sets of subjects would be (about) equally attached to the mugs at that point. If they ever discussed why they did that, I did not see it. Maybe all the other experiments also did this (I haven't read the papers) and still found a difference! But I really doubt it.
I think what it shows is that subjects can be trained to overcome the endowment effect (if it exists)
Then what do you make of the fact that other experiments have failed to show a WTP-WTA gap? (See section I of the paper).
This was also after the trading mechanism was explained to them at some length with examples, which may have prompted them to think more strategically or otherwise think more like a trader than normal or gotten them to learn how to actually obtain good payoffs.
The endowment effect is a hypothesis about how much an item is valued wh...
Under fairly weak assumptions, the most a standard rational economic agent is willing to pay for an item they don't own (WTP) and the least they're willing to accept in exchange for that item if they already own it (WTA) should be identical. In experiments with humans, psychologists and economists have repeatedly found WTP-WTA gaps suggesting that humans aren't rational in at least this specific way. This has been interpreted as the endowment effect* and evidence for prospect theory. According to prospect theory, people are loss averse. Roughly this means that that, given their current ownership set, people value not losing stuff more highly than gaining stuff. Thus once someone gains ownership of something they suddenly value it much more highly. This "endowment effect"* on one's valuation of an item has been put forth as an explanation for the observed WTP - WTA gaps.
*Wikipedia confusingly defines the endowment effect as the gap itself, i.e. as the phenomena to be explained instead of the explanation. I suspect this is a difference in terminology among economists and psychologists, where psychologists use the wiki definition and economists use the definition I give here. However, calling the WTP-WTA gap an "endowment effect" is a bit misleading because a priori the gap may not have anything to endowments at all.
A paper (pdf) by Charlie Plott and Kathryn Zeiler investigates WTP-WTA gaps and it turns out that they may just be due to subjects not quite understanding the experimental protocols, particularly in the value elicitation process. Here's an important quote from their conclusion, but do read the paper for details: