Maybe; I'm not sure.

I mean, these terms are fuzzy, but to continue with my analogy... consider the following (tiny subset of all) possible processes:

• [A] "the guy leading the meeting proposed a schedule, and that's the schedule we're using; there was no opportunity to object nor any expectation of such an opportunity."
• [B] "the guy leading the meeting proposed a schedule, some people objected, he changed some stuff, nobody objected, and that's the schedule we're using; most people paid no attention and don't really care"
• [C] "everyone in the room was asked to propose a schedule, the various proposed schedules were merged in some standardized fashion and a composite schedule was generated; we're using the composite schedule"

I would say there's some property P() for which P(A) < P(B) < P(C) where P() bears some relationship (perhaps partially homologous, perhaps simply analogous) to what we're calling "democracy" here. At some point it's a question of where we draw a fairly arbitrary threshold line.

I'm inclined to draw the line such that B and C are both "democratic" and A is not.
It seems to me that you're drawing the line such that only C is "democratic."

If I'm correct, then I guess my answer to your question is "I don't believe the US is a democracy, nor do I endorse it being one; I can't imagine what a democracy comprising human minds would even look like."

I suspect I'm misunderstanding you, though.