GuySrinivasan comments on Harry Potter and the Methods of Rationality discussion thread, part 24, chapter 95 - Less Wrong Discussion
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Did I miss something, or do we still have very little idea about what the word substitution in Snape's remembrance of the prophecy means?
versus
It's an impersonation of an accent (maybe Eastern European?) Spellets = spirits, Vuld = world.
I thought "SPELLETS" and "VULD" are just Seer-y ways of saying "spirits" and "world" respectively.
I thought Severus didn't want to repeat the real prophecy to a random student, so he substituted in some nonsense words, while attempting to keep the tone, meter, and rhythm in place.
I thought approximately the same thing, but along the lines of wanting the student to focus on the tone, meter, and rhythm (which apparently carry much of the meaning) so taking away the meaning of the actual words to remove distractions.
I want to like this theory, but I'm not sure that the nonsense words sufficiently obscure the real prophecy. For example, if Voldemort tracked down the student, somehow reversed her Obliviation (if necessary), and then used Legilimency to find out the wording (if it turns out that Voldemort doesn't know this part?) then I'm pretty sure Voldemort would be able to reconstruct the original words.
For that matter, we are also told that "only someone who heard the prophecy in the seer's original voice would hear all the meaning that was in the riddle." Therefore what Voldemort would actually be interested in, given access to all of Rianne's memories, is Snape's own interpretation of the prophecy, or even any hints at it.
But didn't Voldemort already get that when he Legilimized Snape, when Snape originally told him the prophecy?
He got 1980ish!Snape's interpretation/thoughts, 1991!Snape presumably has new ones.
for those two different spell-elements cannot exist in the same voldemort...? O.o Those two different spell-elements cannot exist in the same fold?