You're looking at Less Wrong's discussion board. This includes all posts, including those that haven't been promoted to the front page yet. For more information, see About Less Wrong.

JQuinton comments on More "Stupid" Questions - Less Wrong Discussion

14 Post author: NancyLebovitz 31 July 2013 09:18AM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (495)

You are viewing a single comment's thread.

Comment author: JQuinton 01 August 2013 02:35:33PM 3 points [-]

If you can use Bayes Theorem to see what the evidence does to the probability of a hypothesis, can you also use BT to see what happens to the hypothesis upon the absence of evidence?

Or, if you can use P(H | E) = P(E | H)*P(H) / P(E) Can you formulate it as P(H | ~E) = P(~E | H) * P(H) / P(~E) for absence of evidence?

Comment author: Oscar_Cunningham 01 August 2013 10:27:27PM 5 points [-]

Indeed. To put it another way, "absence of evidence" is just a different kind of evidence. If hearing a dog bark would tell you something then not hearing it bark also tells you something.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 01 August 2013 02:40:04PM 4 points [-]

Yes.