OK, I just ran some numbers based on wild guesses. Assuming 10% of all men are gay, and 80% of gay men look gay, and 15% of straight men look gay, my napkin calculation gives about 37% chance that a man who looks gay is actually gay.
Doesn't look like any gaydar based on perceived behavior would be too reliable.
Of course, if any of my steps was wrong, please let me know.
A gaydar doesn't have to depend on how gay a person looks superficially. There are plenty of other cues.
This is a thread where people can ask questions that they would ordinarily feel embarrassed for not knowing the answer to. The previous thread is at close to 500 comments.