In your metaethics, what does it mean for an ethical system to be "true", then (put in quotations only because it is a vague term at the moment in need of definition)? Elizier's metaethics has a good case for following a morality considered "true" in that it fits human intuitions- but if you abandon that where does it get you?
Deontology being in true in my meaning is something along the lines of god actually existing and there being a list of things he wants us to do, or a morality that is somehow inherent in the laws of physics that once we know enough about the universe everyone should follow. To me a morality that falls out of the balance between human (or sentients in general) preferences is more like utilitarianism.
My apologies if this doesn't deserve a Discussion post, but if this hasn't been addresed anywhere than it's clearly an important issue.
There have been many defences of consequentialism against deontology, including quite a few on this site. What I haven't seen, however, is any demonstration of how deontology is incompatible with the ideas in Elizier's Metaethics sequence- as far as I can tell, a deontologist could agree with just about everything in the Sequences.
Said deontologist would argue that, to the extent a human universial morality can exist through generalised moral instincts, said instincts tend to be deontological (as supported through scientific studies- a study of the trolley dilemna v.s the 'fat man' variant showed that people would divert the trolley but not push the fat man). This would be their argument against the consequentialist, who they could accuse of wanting a consequentialist system and ignoring the moral instincts at the basis of their own speculations.
I'm not completely sure about this, but figure it an important enough misunderstanding if I indeed misunderstood to deserve clearing up.