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TheAncientGeek comments on Why didn't people (apparently?) understand the metaethics sequence? - Less Wrong Discussion

12 Post author: ChrisHallquist 29 October 2013 11:04PM

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Comment author: Carinthium 31 October 2013 02:15:13PM 0 points [-]

Clarification- do you mean inconsistencies within or between philosophers? Between philosophers I agree with you- within a single philosopher's work I'd be curious to see examples.

Comment author: Douglas_Knight 31 October 2013 04:47:31PM 0 points [-]

I just mean that philosophers have a bad track record asserting that they are using the same definition as each other. That's rather worse than just not using the same definition. I told Jack that he wasn't using the same definition as the Stanford Encyclopedia. I didn't expect him to believe me, but he didn't even notice. Does that count for your purpose, since he chose the source?

But, yes, I do condemn argument by definition because I don't trust the individuals to have definitions.

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