You're looking at Less Wrong's discussion board. This includes all posts, including those that haven't been promoted to the front page yet. For more information, see About Less Wrong.

philh comments on Using Bayes to dismiss fringe phenomena - Less Wrong Discussion

1 [deleted] 05 October 2014 01:42AM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (39)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: philh 05 October 2014 09:54:55PM *  1 point [-]

I'm afraid I can't tell which direction you think I'm confused in. That example was intended to be an instance of UO1 for which P(UO1|UAP) > P(UO1|¬UAP), and that still seems true to me, even if P(UO1|UAP) is still low.

(I'm taking UAP to be something like "Earth is sometimes visited by aliens".)