You're looking at Less Wrong's discussion board. This includes all posts, including those that haven't been promoted to the front page yet. For more information, see About Less Wrong.

TheAncientGeek comments on Why is the A-Theory of Time Attractive? - Less Wrong Discussion

6 Post author: Tyrrell_McAllister 31 October 2014 11:11PM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (89)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: TheAncientGeek 03 November 2014 12:26:38AM 1 point [-]

Do you think there can be an equivalence between a theory that says time passes,and one that says it doesn't?

Comment author: Gunnar_Zarncke 03 November 2014 06:51:20AM 1 point [-]

There are lots of dual theories of things. Esp. in math. Think about geometry: In triagulation you can describe areas by their borders or by the centers. Voronoi triangulation converts vetween the 'views'. Implementations of both approaches have different performance characteristics.

Comment author: TheAncientGeek 03 November 2014 10:10:16AM *  1 point [-]

How is that applicable to this particular case?

Comment author: Gunnar_Zarncke 03 November 2014 12:12:16PM 1 point [-]

A theory of time which models time as changing will use entities to represent 'now' and 'change'-events, whereas a static-time theory will designate entities to points in time. The former is better suited to answer questions about now (and implementations built upon that will be faster on this kind of query) whereas the latter is better suited to answer questions about fixed points in time or compare these (and implementations based on this will be faster on these operations).

Comment author: TheAncientGeek 03 November 2014 12:49:29PM 1 point [-]

But that isn't a duality in the mathematical sense, because there is no translation of change tfrom the dynamic scheme to the static scheme: it's "horses for courses".

Comment author: torekp 03 November 2014 01:53:40AM 1 point [-]

Yes, in a vaguely comparable way that a different "theory" says the tree in the forest makes no sound, and another says that it does. The verbal problem in your example would center on "passes".

Comment author: TheAncientGeek 03 November 2014 10:15:01AM *  1 point [-]

Do you think there is an equivalence in this case?

Comment author: torekp 04 November 2014 01:10:12AM 1 point [-]

I dunno, are we talking about A-theory, or presentism, and which version? I'm ready to agree that there are at least some ways of formulating A-theory that don't have a B-equivalent.