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MrMind comments on Open thread, Nov. 3 - Nov. 9, 2014 - Less Wrong Discussion
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Not exactly. Bohmian QM allows superluminal signalling in certain circumstances.
Not sure what you mean by this. It is true that Bohmian particles can influence one another superluminally. However, if the experimenter's epistemic state is represented by the wave function (as Bohmian mechanics presupposes), then this superluminal influence can't be leveraged to transmit information superluminally.
Yes, theoretically it could, but not in an average sense. Quantum mechanics standard is recovered when the wave functions is in equilibrium, but in out-of-equilibrium states you can have violation of relativity or of the Heisenberg uncertainty.
Well, quantum non-equilibrium (based on your Wikipedia link) violates the condition I specified ("the experimenter's epistemic state is represented by the wave function"). I had assumed that was a pre-supposition of Bohmian mechanics, but apparently it is not (at least for some proponents of Bohmianism).
Interesting, thanks.
Well, have any differences been tested, and if not, why not?
Yes, they have been tested and no, so far no such effect has been found.
So why do people still believe it? Would you expect an effect to have been found at the scales tested?
I'm afraid you'll have to ask to someone who actually believes it...
Really? Could you tell us more?
I'll let wikipedia do the work: quantum non-equilibrium.