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polymathwannabe comments on What are the thoughts of Less Wrong on property dualism? - Less Wrong Discussion

1 Post author: casebash 03 January 2015 01:24PM

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Comment author: polymathwannabe 06 January 2015 04:47:22AM *  2 points [-]

The entire field of psychopharmacology rests on the assumption that the mind has a physical basis. Substances that alter the functioning of the brain will make your mind work differently. Also, brain lesions may severely limit what your mind can do. This very strongly suggests that the mind is not only experienced "through" the brain, but that it originates in the brain. Equally important evidence is the fact that nothing else affects the functioning of the mind; if you want to alter it, you need to tinker with the brain.

Comment author: [deleted] 06 January 2015 05:56:56AM -1 points [-]

You make a pretty good point.

The mind originates from the brain, experimentation strongly suggests.

In my mind, overcoming that bias is the definition of rationalism (ie, empirical truths are not fundamental truths).

Comment author: polymathwannabe 06 January 2015 02:08:26PM 0 points [-]

If you're not going to trust empirical evidence, what on Earth are you going to trust? How is dismissing empirical evidence the definition of rationalism?

Comment author: [deleted] 06 January 2015 04:25:34PM -1 points [-]

If you're not going to trust empirical evidence, what on Earth are you going to trust?

Critical rationalism.

How is dismissing empirical evidence the definition of rationalism?

"Rationalists have such a high confidence in reason that proof and physical evidence are unnecessary to ascertain truth – in other words, "there are significant ways in which our concepts and knowledge are gained independently of sense experience".[4] Because of this belief, empiricism is one of rationalism's greatest rivals."

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rationalism

If you believe that you get truth from the senses, you are missing the part where the mind processes that sense experience in a conceptual framework.

The biases in the conceptual framework need to be analyzed through rational processes, as they are already apparent in the observations we make, and thus observation alone will not reveal them.

Comment author: gjm 06 January 2015 07:16:00PM 1 point [-]

I'm sure it's been explained to you several times that the meaning of "rationalism" prevalent on LW is not the technical philosophical meaning that makes it opposite to "empiricism".

There is nothing wrong with using "rationalist" in this way rather than with the technical philosophical meaning; e.g., the second definition in the OED (the first being a theological one) is "The doctrine or belief that reason should be the only guiding principle in life, obviating the need for reliance on, or adherence to, any form of religious belief" which isn't quite the LW usage but is a clear ancestor of it.

I have the impression from your comments about "rationalism" here that either (1) you think that no one uses the term "rationalist" with any meaning other than the technical philosophical one, or (2) you think that no one should and are interpreting every use of the word that way even though you know that's not how it's really being used, presumably to make a point. If #1, you are simply wrong. If #2, you are being pointlessly rude.

The biases in the conceptual framework need to be analysed through rational processes

Do you expect us to disagree? If so, why?

Comment author: [deleted] 06 January 2015 07:19:08PM *  1 point [-]

My point is, if you want to discuss cognitive bias, the first and foremost bias should be that we seem to see material things, and think its territory, when really we're dealing with the map.

That's rationality, however you want to dice it.

EDIT: Thefore, the brain is part of the map.

The mind is what makes the map, the mind is the space between the map and the territory.

Comment author: gjm 07 January 2015 10:10:23AM 1 point [-]

Therefore, the brain is part of the map.

Our concept of the brain is part of the map. It seems like you want to forbid regarding anything as territory, which makes the whole map/territory distinction less useful than it could be.

Comment author: polymathwannabe 06 January 2015 04:57:57PM 1 point [-]

I'm not advocating naive realism, and I don't think anyone at LW does. The map-territory metaphor, much beloved at LW, is a comprehensive rejection of naive realism. However, I see "the part where the mind processes that sense experience" as being exactly the part where you "get truth."

Comment author: [deleted] 06 January 2015 05:25:32PM 1 point [-]

Right. The brain exists on the map, just like London does.

The line between the brain and the brain stem is something we create. It exists in textbooks (the map) not the territory.

Comment author: JoshuaZ 07 January 2015 02:38:32PM 1 point [-]

Critical rationalism.

Do you mean critical rationalism in the sense of Popper? I find this strange given your other comments since Popper's notion of critical rationalism does allow one to use empirical data to falsify hypotheses.

(This is aside from the fact that critical rationalism is an utterly unsatisfactory approach to epistemology.)

Comment author: [deleted] 07 January 2015 07:04:29PM 0 points [-]

I fully support using empirical evidence in the critical examination of ideas.

The question is not whether one dismisses empirical evidence (as someone suggested, but not me), but whether empirical evidence (the facts as I see them) are indeed the facts, or whether cognitive biases exist in the empirical data.

The critical rationalist says that empirical evidence is not the truth, that objective truth is a tentative model, a model that influences our observations, and that both ideas and observations should be subjected to critical tests (which consist of more ideas and observations).