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Unknowns comments on Harry Potter and the Methods of Rationality discussion thread, February 2015, chapter 108 - Less Wrong Discussion
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I just read up to the point in chapter 108 where Voldemort refuses to answer the question about the immortality spell (and haven't read the comments here yet.) It occurred to me immediately that since this is question about the past -- assuming Voldemort has already cast the spell -- that he has broken his agreement, which means that Harry can now start executing plans to overcome him, and say "No" without lying when Voldemort asks if he has betrayed him.
Harry can't lie because one cannot say untruths in Parseltongue, not because of some contract. Voldemort's holding all the cards here, and he's only bound by what Harry might do to become a liability.
EDIT: And right after posting, I realized what was meant, that it is no longer betrayal when the agreement is void. My apologies.