RichardKennaway comments on The Pre-Historical Fallacy - Less Wrong Discussion
You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.
You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.
Comments (30)
No, the second statement hinges on a causal claim, so correlations alone can't prove it unless supplemented with strong causal assumptions. Gene variants being correlated with religious beliefs is consistent with three different causal hypotheses: (1) gene variants influence religious belief, (2) religious belief influences gene variants, and/or (3) gene variants and religious belief have some common cause. Correlations only tell us that at least one of the hypotheses is true; they don't allow us to conclude that hypothesis 1 is correct.
ETA: [does Fonzie thumbs-up] aaaayyyy!
It don't know why this got downvoted, as it is completely correct.
As a practical example, consider the correlation between intelligence and Ashkenazic ancestry, and how that arose, with respect to those three alternatives.