You are a little off :P
Let's do a toy problem. Suppose that Statistician 2 is extra-lazy, and will only flip the coin three times, again stopping if they ever have more heads than tails. And suppose that, again, they end up using up all the flips and have more tails than heads - in this case, 2 tails and 1 heads. Every time, they must get tails first, or else they would immediately stop, and then they either get the next two flips Heads-Tails or Tails-Heads - they can only get the sequences THT or TTH.
So P(THT+TTH | Coin A) = 4/27, while P(THT+TTH | Coin B) = 8/27. So statistician 2 will record twice as many of this result from coin B as from coin A. Thus statistician 2 claims that the probability of it being coin B is 2/3.
Compare this to Statistician 1: P(1 heads and 2 tails | Coin A) = P(HTT+THT+TTH | Coin A) = 6/27, while P(HTT+THT+TTH | Coin B) = 12/27. Thus statistician 1 thinks the probability of it being coin B is 2/3. The two statisticians get the same results!
This is a general pattern - because the trials are independent, when statistician 2 compares how many times they get a result with coin A vs coin B, the ratio (and thus the likelihood ratio) will be the same as for statistician 1 - number 2 just only accepts a smaller number of possible sequences of flips - but all of those sequences have the same ratio of probabilities.
Remember P(A|B) = P(A) * P(B|A) / P(B). Here P(B|A) is the probability of getting some number of heads and tails given a specific coin, and P(B) the probability of getting that result averaged over both coins. The size of P(B|A) itself doesn't matter, only the ratio P(B|A)/P(B).
This is not to say that statistician 2 can't cheat. All they have to do is to not publish results with more tails than heads. Now if you update straightforwardly on the published results, on average statistician 2 has biased you towards coin A. The only way to counteract this is if you know that this is what they're doing, and can update on your observations, not just their published observations.
There's another toy example that might help too. Suppose Statistician 2 is willing to flip the coin 3 times, but gets heads on the first flip and stops there. Surely you can't accept this data, or else you're practically guaranteed to let Statistician 2 manipulate you, right?
Well, P(H | coin A) = 2/3, and P(H| | coin B) = 1/3, so clearly "first flip heads" is an event that happens twice as often when it's coin A. What kind of scientist would you be if you couldn't derive evidence from an event that happens twice as often under some conditions?
The...
(tl;dr: In this post I try to explain why I think the stopping rule of an experiment matters. It is likely that someone will find a flaw in my reasoning. That would be a great outcome as it would help me change my mind. Heads up: If you read this looking for new insight you may be disappointed to only find my confusion)
(Edited to add: Comments by Manfred and Ike seem to point correctly to the critical flaws in my reasoning. I will try to update my intuition over the next few days)
In the post "Don't You Care If It Works Part 1" on the Main section of this website, Jacobian writes:
First, I'd like to point out that the mainstream academic term for Eliezer's claim is The Strong Likelihood Principle. In the comments section, a vigorous discussion of stopping rules ensued.
My own intuition is that the strong likelihood principle is wrong. Moreover, there exist a small number of people whose opinion I give higher level of credence than Eliezer's, and some of those people also disagree with him. For instance, I've been present in the room when a distinguished Professor of Biostatistics at Harvard stated matter-of-factly that the principle is trivially wrong. I also observed that he was not challenged on this by another full Professor of Biostatistics who is considered an expert on Bayesian inference.
So at best, the fact that Eliezer supports the strong likelihood principle is a single data point, ie pretty weak Bayesian evidence. I do however value Eliezer's opinion, and in this case I recognize that I am confused. Being a good rationalist, I'm going to take that as an indication that it is time for The Ritual. Writing this post is part of my "ritual": It is an attempt to clarify exactly why I think the stopping condition matters, and determine whether those reasons are valid. I expect a likely outcome is that someone will identify a flaw in my reasoning. This will be very useful and help improve my map-territory correspondence.
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Suppose there are two coins in existence, both of which are biased: Coin A comes up heads with probability 2/3 and tails with probability 1/3, whereas Coin B comes up heads with probability 1/3. Someone gives me a coin without telling me which one, my goal is to figure out if it is Coin A or Coin B. My prior is that they are equally likely.
There are two statisticians who both offer to do an experiment: Statistician 1 says that he will flip the coin 20 times and report the number of heads. Statistician 2 would really like me to believe that it is Coin B, and says he will terminate the experiment whenever there are more tails than heads. However, since Statistician 2 is kind of lazy and doesn't have infinite time, he also says that if he reaches 20 flips he is going to call it quits and give up.
Both statisticians do the experiment, and both experiments end up with 12 heads and 8 tails. I trust both Statisticians to be honest about the experimental design and the stopping rules.
In the experiment of Statistician 1, the probability of getting this outcome if you have Coin A was 0.1486, whereas the probability of getting this outcome if it was Coin B was 0.0092. The likelihood ratio is therefore 16.1521 and the posterior probability of Coin A (after converting the prior to odds, applying the likelihood ratio and converting back to probability) is 0.94.
In the experiment of Statistician 2, however, I can't just use the binomial distribution because there is an additional data point which is not Bernoulli, namely the number of coin flips. I therefore have to calculate, for both Coin A and Coin B, the probability that he would not terminate the experiment prior to the 20th flip, and that at that stage he would have 12 heads and 8 coins. Since the probability reaching 20 flips is much higher for Coin A than for Coin B, the likelihood ratio would be much higher than in the experiment of Statistician 1.
This should not be unexpected: If Statistician B gives me data that supports the hypothesis which his stopping rule was designed to discredit, then that data is stronger evidence than similar data coming from the neutral Statistician A.
In other words, the stopping rule matters. Yes, all the evidence in the trial is still in the likelihood ratio, but the likelihood ratio is different because there is an additional data point. Not considering this additional data point is statistical malpractice.