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KnaveOfAllTrades comments on Does Probability Theory Require Deductive or Merely Boolean Omniscience? - Less Wrong Discussion

4 Post author: potato 03 August 2015 06:54AM

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Comment author: KnaveOfAllTrades 08 August 2015 10:23:29PM 0 points [-]

Why can't the deduction be the evidence? If I start with a 50-50 prior that 4 is prime, I can then use the subsequent observation that I've found a factor to update downwards. This feels like it relies on the reasoner's embedding though, so maybe it's cheating, but it's not clear and non-confusing to me why it doesn't count.