So... how many times did this happen?
I don't know, but I expect that some data exists -- there were enough books and studies of the robber-baron capitalism and such.
And if you're not sure, would you expect this to happen frequently, given the dangers of retaliation?
The dangers of retaliation are the same in every era.
In capitalism, "Cooperate" has a higher average long-term rate of return. In other economic systems, "Defect" has a higher average long-term rate of return.
I am quite unconvinced of that. Note that Adam Smith's invisible hand is NOT cooperation. And take, say, socialism of the USSR and Mao's China variety -- do you think it encourages to cooperate or defect? Or how about the Roman Empire?
At this point, the economic system in the US isn't capitalism
That's a different topic, but it seems to me to be mostly about the definition of "capitalism". I don't think "pure" capitalism ever existed anywhere.
The dangers of retaliation are the same in every era.
Dead enemies don't retaliate.
I am quite unconvinced of that. Note that Adam Smith's invisible hand is NOT cooperation.
For the limited purposes I am discussing, yes it is. Just because the payoff matrix favors cooperation doesn't make it not-cooperation.
And take, say, socialism of the USSR and Mao's China variety -- do you think it encourages to cooperate or defect? Or how about the Roman Empire?
The USSR encouraged defection; just look at how, whenever food production was particularly problema...
This thread is for asking any questions that might seem obvious, tangential, silly or what-have-you. Don't be shy, everyone has holes in their knowledge, though the fewer and the smaller we can make them, the better.
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