The first question you should ask is whether or not consumption should be stimulated. This "stimulation" concept is where Reagonomics and Keynesian economics collide - the idea that the macro economy's ideal (efficient?) state is higher than what it currently is, and needs to be adjusted. It's worth noting that profit is the difference between consumption and production - in a generalized sense, and also in the trivial sense of mere net flow of dollars. What does stimulated consumption do? What does profit mean, on a global scale?
The second question is whether consumption can be stimulated.
Those are very reasonable questions, but how do you get from asking those questions to concluding that Gunnar_Zarncke is engaging in reasoning "somewhere between the worst elements of Reaganomics and Keynesian economics" and in "wishful thinking"?
It's true (as I understand it) that Reaganomics and Keynesian economics both tend to approve of "stimulus" to the economy. That seems like a quite different (and much weaker) claim than that approving of economic stimulus partakes of the worst of those two views of economics.
This thread is for asking any questions that might seem obvious, tangential, silly or what-have-you. Don't be shy, everyone has holes in their knowledge, though the fewer and the smaller we can make them, the better.
Please be respectful of other people's admitting ignorance and don't mock them for it, as they're doing a noble thing.
To any future monthly posters of SQ threads, please remember to add the "stupid_questions" tag.