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Lumifer comments on What is the future of nootropic drugs? Why can't there be ones more effective than ones that have existed for 15+ years? - Less Wrong Discussion

5 Post author: InquilineKea 06 March 2016 06:45PM

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Comment author: Lumifer 07 March 2016 04:54:17PM 0 points [-]

they seem to be massively anti-drugs of any kind except tea & tobacco

Which is interesting as the Chinese traditional medicine heavily relies on hundreds of plant preparations, some with (claimed) nootropic properties.

Also, when drug use became socially acceptable in the West? 1960s, I guess, after Kerouac, Burroughs, etc?

Comment author: gwern 07 March 2016 05:54:31PM 1 point [-]

Also, when drug use became socially acceptable in the West? 1960s, I guess, after Kerouac, Burroughs, etc?

Way before that. Drug use has always been a strand in the West: the Eleusianian mysteries, etc. Think William James on nitrous oxide, Freud and cocaine, heroin and opium in widespread use by regular people...

Comment author: Lumifer 07 March 2016 06:16:12PM 1 point [-]

Yes, that's true, during late XIX - early XX century drugs like cocaine and opium were in (relatively) common use. But that raises the question whether most of the XX century was an aberration in that respect, a temporary victory of puritans...

Psychedelics are a bit of a special case though, in that they became known and widespread quite late. I am sure there were some Victorian gentlemen who tried magic mushrooms and such, but it took LSD (and cheap LSD) to get psychedelics to the masses. And that happened in the West -- I don't know if East Asia ever had a wave of people experimenting with psychedelics. China was too poor and Japan was too conformist.