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MrMind comments on Open Thread May 16 - May 22, 2016 - Less Wrong Discussion
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A stupid question... If I ask people (n = several hundreds to thousand) to put a coin down on the table such that it wouldn't roll away, heads or tails up... I expect the overall results to be near 1:1 ratio of heads to tails... But it wouldn't be as random as when I (or they) just tossed the coin on the table, right?
"Random", in objective Bayesianism, just means that you have no information privileging one alternative or the other.
In this case, the reasons why you don't know which outcome each single experiment will have are different, but the end result is the same.
There are possibly differences in their Ap distributions though, depending on how you model human behaviour...