If I can't get this study published in the traditional way, I'll "publish" it myself on the internet.
In this case, what I'm calling the null hypothesis is somewhat meatier than a null hypothesis you would typically find in a medical study. The voluntary supplemental financial reporting for these (insurance) companies (starting with 2011) is something called market consistent embedded value (MCEV). My null hypothesis is that the phrase 'market consistent' is accurate - this is roughly equivalent to assuming that, in valuing the long-term liabilities of these companies, market participants pretend that they are securities with the same cashflows. My alternate hypothesis is that market participants value these liabilities within a framework of the company as a going concern, focusing on the company's cost of meeting these liabilities.
If I can't get this study published in the traditional way, I'll "publish" it myself on the internet.
There's always the Journal of Articles in Support of the Null Hypothesis.
Marginal Revolution linked a post at Genomes Unzipped, "Size matters, and other lessons from medical genetics", with the interesting centerpiece graph:
This is from pg 3 of an Ioannidis 2001 et al article (who else?) on what is called a funnel plot: each line represents a series of studies about some particularly hot gene-disease correlations, plotted where Y = the odds ratio (measure of effect size; all results are 'statistically significant', of course) and X = the sample size. The 1 line is the null hypothesis, here. You will notice something dramatic: as we move along the X-axis and sample sizes increase, everything begins to converge on 1:
(See also "Why epidemiology will not correct itself" or the DNB FAQ.)
This graph is interesting as it shows 8 different regressions to the mean. What is also interesting is what a funnel plot is usually used for, why I ran into it in the first place reading Cochrane Group materials - it's used to show publication bias.
That is, suppose you were looking at a gene you know for certain not to be correlated (you knew the null result to be true), and you ran many trials, each with a different number of samples; you would expect that the trials with small samples would have a wide scattering of results (sometimes the effect size would look wildly large and sometimes they would look wildly small or negative), and that this scattering would be equally for and against any connection (on either side of the 1 line). By the same reasoning you would expect that your largest samples would only be scattered a little bit on either side of the 1 line, and the larger the sample the closer they will be to the 1/null line.
If you plotted your hypothetical trials on the above graph, you'd see what looks pretty much like the above graph - a kind of triangular cloud, wide on the left and ever narrowing towards the right as sample sizes increase and variance decreases.
Now here's the question: given that all 8 correlations trend steadily towards the null hypothesis, one would seem to expect them to actually be the null result. But if that is so, where are the random trials scattered on the other side of the 1 line? Not one sequence of studies ever crosses the 1 line!
Wikipedia's funnel chart graph shows us how a plot should look (with this time sample size being the Y axis and odds being the X axis, so the triangle is rotated):
Does that describe any of the sequences graphed above?