MugaSofer comments on Arguments Against Speciesism - LessWrong

28 Post author: Lukas_Gloor 28 July 2013 06:24PM

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Comment author: MugaSofer 04 August 2013 02:18:51PM 0 points [-]

No, sorry, I mean it's worse overall, not worse because racist.

Comment author: Jiro 05 August 2013 08:49:54PM 0 points [-]

It's not hard to come up with a scenario where having all voters be incompetents who choose the candidate at random is better for the population at large than just holding a racially biased election.

For instance, consider 100 people, 90 white and 10 black; candidate A is best for 46 whites and 0 blacks while candidate B is best for 44 whites and 10 blacks. For the population as a whole, B is the best and A is the worst. If the blacks are excluded from the franchise and the whites vote their own interests, the worst candidate (A) is always elected, while if everyone is incompetent and votes at random, there's only a 50% chance of the worst candidate being elected

Comment author: MugaSofer 06 August 2013 02:27:49PM 0 points [-]

You realize there's more to politics than race, right?

That said, you would definitely have to be careful to ensure the test was as good as possible.

Comment author: Jiro 08 August 2013 02:50:42PM 0 points [-]

Although there's more to politics than race, race is an important part of it, and we're obligated to treat other people fairly with respect to race. The argument that it doesn't matter how racially biased a test is because it's good in other ways isn't something I am inclined to accept.

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 09 August 2013 05:54:47AM 0 points [-]

What's your counter-argument?

Comment author: Jiro 09 August 2013 02:26:01PM -1 points [-]

It's not an argument, it's a premise.

Feel free to propose that in fact it doesn't matter how racially biased a test is because it's good in other ways. I don't know how many people will agree with you, though.

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 10 August 2013 04:47:43AM 1 point [-]

You said you weren't willing to accept the argument. Do you have any better reason than "I don't feel like it"?

Comment author: Jiro 10 August 2013 12:32:07PM *  1 point [-]

Wasn't willing to accept what argument?

He claimed that a test that is bad overall is worse than a racially biased test. That might be a nontrivial argument if it he could show that it is worse by some fairly universal criterion. I pointed out that that he can't show this, because I can come up with a scenario where the racially biased test is clearly worse than the overall bad test.

His reply to that was "there is more to politics than race". In context (rather than by taking the literal words), he's telling me that I shouldn't emphasize race so much when talking politics. His argument for that? Um... none, really. There's no argument to respond to or accept. All I can do is say "no, I don't accept that premise. I think my emphasis on race is appropriate".

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 11 August 2013 10:33:44PM 0 points [-]

Wasn't willing to accept what argument?

Why is bias on the test that happens to correlate with race worse than any other bias?

Comment author: Jiro 11 August 2013 11:58:20PM 1 point [-]

I don't see any argument in that.

Comment author: MugaSofer 18 August 2013 07:56:33PM 1 point [-]

The argument that it doesn't matter how racially biased a test is because it's good in other ways isn't something I am inclined to accept.

I assume this is hyperbole, since obviously a truly perfect test could draw from any subset of the population, as long as it was large enough to contain near-perfect individuals.

With that said, I agree, we should attempt to avoid any bias in such a test, including that of race (I would not, however, single this possibility out.) That is what I meant by

That said, you would definitely have to be careful to ensure the test was as good as possible.

However, beyond a certain level of conscientiousness, demanding perfectly unbiased tests becomes counterproductive; especially when one focuses on one possible bias to the exclusion of others. In truth, even age is a racially biased criterion.

Comment author: Lumifer 09 August 2013 03:44:39PM 1 point [-]

how racially biased a test is

Do you define racial bias by how the test works or by which outcomes it produces?

Comment author: Jiro 09 August 2013 05:37:29PM 1 point [-]

In context, MugaSofer had claimed that if a test that allows young people to vote based on IQ tests black people of equal intelligence as 5 points lower IQ, that's okay because an age test is worse than that. I was, therefore, referring to that kind of bias. I'm not sure whether you would call "gives a number 5 points lower for black people of equal intelligence" 'how the test works' or 'which outcomes it produces'.

Comment author: Lumifer 09 August 2013 05:51:06PM *  2 points [-]

In this context, MugaSofer's test is clearly "how it works" because the test explicitly looks at the color of skin and subtracts 5 from the score if the skin is dark enough.

On the other hand, "which outcomes it produces" is the more or less standard racial bias test applied by government agencies to all kinds of businesses and organizations.

Comment author: Jiro 09 August 2013 07:37:27PM 0 points [-]

I didn't describe a test which looks at the color of skin and subtracts 5; I described a test which produces results 5 points lower for people with a certain color of skin. Whether it does that by looking at the color of skin explicitly, or by being an imperfect measure of intelligence where the imperfection is correlated to skin color, I didn't specify, and I was in fact thinking of the latter case.

Comment author: Lumifer 09 August 2013 07:58:01PM 2 points [-]

These are two rather different things. I am not sure how the latter case works -- if the test is blinded to the skin color but you believe it discriminates against blacks, (1) How do you know the "true" IQ which the test understates; and (2) what is it, then, that the test picks up as a proxy or correlate to the skin color?

Standard IQ tests show dependency on race -- generally the mean IQ of blacks is about one standard deviation below the mean IQ of whites.

Comment author: AndHisHorse 09 August 2013 08:21:37PM 1 point [-]

In my experience, if someone is claiming that a test is racially biased, they are claiming that properly understanding the question requires cultural context which is more or less common in one race than another.

An example I found here is a multiple-choice question which asks the student to select the pair of words with a relationship similar to the relationship between a runner and a marathon. The correct answer there was "oarsman" and "regatta". Clearly, there was a cultural context required to correctly answer this question; examining the correlations between socioeconomic status and race, I would expect to find that the cultural context is more common among rich caucasians.

Comment author: Lumifer 09 August 2013 03:43:37PM *  1 point [-]

That's not an argument about race, that's a generic argument about excluding any kind of people from an election -- kids, mentally ill, felons, immigrants, etc.

Comment author: Jiro 09 August 2013 05:46:22PM -1 points [-]

It's not an argument at all in that sense, it's a counter-argument, to the claim that it doesn't matter if a test is racist since the alternative is "worse overall". I was pointing out that having a test be racist can be equivalent to being worse overall.

It also assumes that people will vote their own interests. Kids and the mentally ill presumably will not, so it doesn't apply to them. And it assumes we care about benefiting them (and therefore that we care when a candidate is worse for the whole population including them); in the case of immigrants and possibly felons, we don't.