aquaticko comments on On Walmart, And Who Bears Responsibility For the Poor - LessWrong
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There's really just six terms I tend to use in order to frame this discussion, which divide into three categories/axes:
1.Ownership of the means of production: this is private or public, the former utilizing private property, the latter dispensing of it. 2. Ends of the means of production: this is capitalist (MoP used for profit) or socialist (MoP used for public good) 3. Rules of the means of production: these are planned (typically state, but could be commune, etc.) or market-oriented (accord with supply/demand)
There have definitely been socialist countries, and most of them utilize public ownership, but as far as I know, none have used the rules of the market, which I believe is the reason for their failure.
Before I say anymore, let me know if these sound like reasonable definitions/distinctions.
Well, these three axes are not independent, are they?
Private ownership necessarily implies the profit motive and market "planning", otherwise I don't see how you can talk about meaningful private ownership. If the state tells you what to produce, takes away your profits, and replenishes your losses, in which sense do you own the means of production?
Public ownership with profit motive seems unappealing, besides the state can't really have a profit motive since it's trivial for it to get more money if it wants it.
And as I mentioned in the other post, I can't see how public ownership and public-goods motive can work with market mechanisms.
I don't know; I'm not the person who asserted "your claim is that socialism improves human welfare. You do realize that this is an empirical statement, and judging from the results of trying socialism (as well as theoretical economic arguments) it appears to be false". I would prefer a definition that is coherent with the intent of that assertion.