I do not find it plausible that almost all Englishmen[1] in 1949 believed that there should be no constraints on how criminals are treated other than the overall interests of "the collective"; do you, really?
He might hope that they do not, when this consequence of their expressed views is argued to them.
He might. But, as I explained, I don't think it is a consequence of their expressed views.
Another month, another rationality quotes thread. The rules are: