That's been done in this paper, secion VI "The Asymptotic Gambit".
Thank you. I had expected the bottom to drop out of it somehow.
EDIT: Although come to think of it I'm not sure the objections presented in that paper are so deadly after all if you takes TDT-like considerations into account (i.e. there would not be a difference between "kill 1 person, prevent 1000 mutilations" + "kill 1 person, prevent 1000 mutilations" and "kill 2 people, prevent 2000 mutilations".) Will have to think on it some more.
Agreed that all of these sorts of arguments ultimately rest on different intuitions about morality, which sometimes conflict, or seem to conflict.
Agreed that value needn't add linearly, and indeed my intuition is that it probably doesn't.
It seems clear to me that if I negatively value something happening, I also negatively value it happening more more. That is, for any X I don't want to have happen, it seems I would rather have X happen than have X happen twice. I can't imagine an X where I don't want X to happen and would prefer to have X happen twice than once. (Barring silly examples like "the power switch for the torture device gets flipped".)
Can anyone explain what goes wrong if you say something like, "The marginal utility of my terminal values increases asymtotically, and u(Torture) approaches a much higher asymptote than u(Dust speck)" (or indeed whether it goes wrong at all)?
I should qualify my statement. I was talking only about the common varieties of utilitarianism and I may well have omitted consistent variants that are unpopular or weird (e.g. something like negative average preference-utilitarianism). Basically my point was that "hybrid-views" like prior-existence (or "critical level" negative utiltiarianism) run into contradictions. Most forms of average utilitarianism aren't contradictory, but they imply an obvious absurdity: A world with one being in maximum suffering would be [edit:] worse than a world with a billion beings in suffering that's just slightly less awful.
That last sentence didn't make sense to me when I first looked at this. Think you must mean "worse", not "better".
Because it's a fair test
No, not even by Eliezer's standard, because TDT is not given the same problem than other decision theories.
As stated in comments below, everyone but TDT have the information "I'm not in the simulation" (or more precisely, in one of the simulations of the infinite regress that is implied by Omega's formulation). The reason TDT does not have this extra piece of information comes from the fact that it is TDT, not from any decision it may make.
This variation of the problem was invented in the follow-up post (I think it was called "Sneaky strategies for TDT" or something like that:
Omega tells you that earlier he flipped a coin. If the coin came down heads, it simulated a CDT agent facing this problem. If the coin came down tails, it simulated a TDT agent facing this problem. In either case, if the simulated agent one-boxed, there is $1000000 in Box-B; if it two-boxed Box-B is empty. In this case TDT still one-boxes (50% chance of $1000000 dominates a 100% chance of $1000), and CDT still two-boxes (because that's what CDT does). In this case, even though both agents have an equal chance of being simulated, CDT out-performs TDT (average payoffs of 500500 vs. 500000) - CDT takes advantage of TDT's prudence and TDT suffers for CDT's lack of it. Notice also that TDT cannot do better by behaving like CDT (both would get payoffs of 1000). This shows that the class of problems we're concerned with is not so much "fair" vs. "unfair", but more like "those problem on which the best I can do is not necessarily the best anyone can do". We can call it "fairness" if we want, but it's not like Omega is discriminating against TDT in this case.
I see no such hard part.
To get back to the exact original problem as stated by the OP, I only need to replace "you" by "an agent running TDT", and "your simulated twin" by "the simulated agent". Do we agree?
Assuming we do agree, are you telling me the hard part is in that change? Are you telling me that TDT would 1-box in the original problem, even though it 2-boxes on my problem?
WHYYYYY?
in which there is no way to tell whether you're in the simulation or not
Wait a minute, what exactly do you mean by "you"? TDT? or "any agent whatsoever"? If it's TDT alone why? If I read you correctly, you already agree that's it's not because Omega said "running TDT" instead of "running WTF-DT". If it's "any agent whatsoever", then are you really sure the simulated and real problem aren't actually the same? (I'm sure they aren't, but, just checking.)
Wait a minute, what exactly do you mean by "you"? TDT? or "any agent whatsoever"? If it's TDT alone why? If I read you correctly, you already agree that's it's not because Omega said "running TDT" instead of "running WTF-DT". If it's "any agent whatsoever", then are you really sure the simulated and real problem aren't actually the same? (I'm sure they aren't, but, just checking.)
Well, no, this would be my disagreement: it's precisely because Omega told you that the simulated agent is running TDT that only TDT could or could not be the simulation; the simulated and real problem are, for all intents and purposes, identical (Omega doesn't actually need to put a reward in the simulated boxes, because he doesn't need to reward the simulated agent, but both problems appear exactly the same to the simulated and real TDT agents).
The only reason other decision theories know they're not in the simulation is because the problem explicitly states that a TDT agent is simulated, which means it can't be them.
That's false. Here is a modified version of the problem:
Omega presents the usual two boxes A and B and announces the following. "Before you entered the room, I ran a simulation of Newcomb's problem as presented to you. If your simulated twin 2-boxed then I put nothing in Box B. If your simulated twin 1-boxed, I put $1 million in Box B. In any case, I put $1000 in Box A. Now please 1-box or 2-box."
Even if you're not running TDT, the simulated agent is running the same decision algorithm as you are. If that was the reason why TDT couldn't tell the difference, well, now no one can. However you and I can make the difference. The simulated problem is obviously different:
Omega presents the usual two boxes A and B and announces the following. "I am subjecting you to Newcomb's problem. Now please 1-box or 2-box".
Really, the subjective difference between the two problems should be obvious to any remotely rational agent.
(Please let me know if you agree up until that point. Below, I assume you do.)
I'm pretty sure the correct answers for the two problems (my modified version as well as the original one) are 1-box in the simulation, 2-box in the real problem. (Do you still agree?)
So. We both agree that RDT (Rational Decision Theory) 1-boxes in the simulation, and 2-boxes in the real problem. CDT would 2-box in both, and TDT would 1-box in the simulation while in the real problem it would…
- 2-box? I think so.
- 1-box? Supposedly because it can't tell simulation from reality. Or rather, it can't tell the difference between Newcomb's problem and the actual problem. Even though RDT does. (riiight?) So again, I must ask, why not? I need a more specific answer than "due to how the problem is set up". I need you to tell me what specific kind of irrationality TDT is committing here. I need to know its specific blind spot.
Well, in the problem you present here TDT would 2-box, but you've avoided the hard part of the problem from the OP, in which there is no way to tell whether you're in the simulation or not (or at least there is no way for the simulated you to tell), unless you're running some algorithm other than TDT.
Would you care to present links to some comparable situations, or are you simply trying to win the argument using imaginary evidence?
I see that you have already found links to comparable situations and quite predictably proceeded to dismiss argument, logic, and evidence as lack of argument, lack of logic, and lack of evidence.
Because people generally try to keep politics out of discussions here
I disagree. Rather, people try to keep non approved politics out of discussions here.
For example: Instead of "father", people around here say "father figure" endorsing the transparently false and outrageously improbable left wing position that biological fathers are an unnecessary part of the family. But that is supposedly not politics, because all right thinking people agree. It is only politics if one says something that some right thinking people disagree with, and if one says something that all right thinking people disagree with, then it is illogical and lacks evidence. To say "father" in the context of discussing family structure is supposedly argumentative, political, illogical, and lacking in evidence, but to say "father figure" is supposedly non political, neutral, objective, and requires no support or evidence.
"Father figure" seems to me to permit either position, "father" not so much. It's always troublesome when someone declares that you can only be properly impartial by agreeing with them.
Didn't you just re-state the prisoner's dilemma?
Prisonner's dilemma for N players is more complex than for 2 players.
For iterated 2 player's dilemma, you cooperate when the other player cooperates, and defect when the other player defects. Always cooperating is not the best strategy; you need to respond to the other player's actions.
When you have 100,000,000 player's prisonner's dilemma, where 60,000,000 players defect and 40,000,000 players cooperate, what exactly are you supposed to do? To make it even more difficult, cooperation has non-zero costs (you have to do some research about political candidates), and it's not even obvious whether the expected payoff is greater than this.
For iterated 2 player's dilemma, you cooperate when the other player cooperates, and defect when the other player defects. Always cooperating is not the best strategy; you need to respond to the other player's actions.
Actually you only cooperate if the other player would defect if you didn't cooperate. If they cooperate no matter what, defect.
Apparently you now come with references. Any interest in joining my betabet*? (It generally meets on IRC and betas in realtime; I don't know if that works for you. You would also need to be caught up on Elcenia, unless you want to do only short stories the way my thetabeta does.)
*My betas get Greek letter designations (alphabeta, betabeta, etc.) and are collectively a betabet, analogous to an alphabet.
I guess so, although looking at it now Elcenia seems to be pretty massive. It will take me a couple of weeks to catch up at least (unless it's exceptionally compelling, it which case damn you in advance for taking up all my time), and we also have to allow for the possibility that it's not just my kind of thing, in which case trying to finish it will make me miserable and I won't be much use to you anyway. But sure, I'll give it a shot.
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There are many problems here.
At the end of paragraph 2 and the other examples, you say
But it doesn't, as you point out later in the post, because the payoff matrix isn't D-C > C-C > D-D, as you explain, but rather C-C > D-C > C-D, because of reputational effects, which is not a prisoner's dilemma. "Prisoner's dilemma" is a very specific term, and you are inflating it.
I doubt that quite strongly!
That is not tit-for-tat! Tit-for-tat is start with cooperate and then parrot the opponent's previous move. It does not do what it "expects" the opponent to do. Furthermore, if you categorically expect your opponent to cooperate, you should defect (just like you should if you expect him to defect). You only cooperate if you expect your opponent to cooperate if he expects you to cooperate ad nauseum.
That is not superrationality! Superrationality achieves cooperation by reasoning that you and your opponent will get the same result for the same reasons, so you should cooperate in order to logically bind your result to C-C (since C-C and D-D are the only two options). What is with all this misuse of terminology? You write like the agents in the examples of this game are using causal decision theory (which defects all the time no matter what) and then bring up elements that cannot possibly be implemented in causal decision theory, and it grinds my gears!
This is in direct violation of one of the themes of Less Wrong. If "rational expected utility maximizers" are doing worse than "irrational emotional hangups", then you're using a wrong definition of "rational". You do this throughout the post, and it's especially jarring because you are or were one of the best writers for this website.
9_9
"The good kind of irrationality" is like "the good kind of bad thing". An oxymoron, by definition.
Bullshit. A rational agent is going to do what works. We know this because we stipulated that it was rational. If you mean to say a "stupid number crunching robot that misses obvious details like how to play ultimatum games" then sure it might do as you describe. But don't call it "rational".
You think?
Downvoted.
I agree with pretty much everything you've said here, except:
You don't actually need to continue this chain - if you're playing against any opponent which cooperates iff you cooperate, then you want to cooperate - even if the opponent would also cooperate against someone who cooperated no matter what, so your statement is also true without the "ad nauseum" (provided the opponent would defect if you defected).