See Alan Hajek's classic article "Waging War on Pascal's Wager."
That article is paywalled. It was published in 2003. Hajek's entry about Pascal's Wager in the Stanford Encylopedia of Philosophy is free and was substantively revised (hopefully by Hajek) in 2008, so there's a good chance the latter contains all the good ideas in the former and is easier to get to. The latter does mention the idea that utilities should be bounded, and many other things potentially wrong with Pascal's wager. There's no neat list of four items that looks like an obvious match to the title of the paywalled article.
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What I'm really asking is, if some statement turns out to be undecidable for all of our Tarskian truth translation maps to models, does that make that conjecture meaningless, or is undecidable somehow distinct from unverifiable. What is the difference between believing "that conjecture is unverifiable" and believing "that conjecture is undecidable."? Are the expectations/restrictions on experience that those two believes offer identical? If so does that mean that the difference between those two believes is a syntactic issue?
See Making Beliefs Pay Rent :
http://lesswrong.com/lw/i3/making_beliefs_pay_rent_in_anticipated_experiences/
Nitpick: you don't mean "models" here, you mean "theories".
Why should it?
Oh... you're implicitly assuming a 1920s style verificationism whereby "meaningfulness" = "verifiability". That's a very bad idea because most/all statements turn out to be 'unverifiable' - certainly all laws of physics.
As for mathematics, the word 'verifiable' applied to a mathematical statement simply means 'provable' - either that or you're using the word in a way guaranteed to cause confusion.
Or perhaps by "statement S is verifiable" what you really mean is "there exists an observation statement T such that P(T|S) is not equal to P(T|¬S)"?