Comment author: [deleted] 25 May 2011 09:40:39PM 2 points [-]

Suppose you think that 3+4=6.

I offer you the following deal: give me $3 today and $4 tomorrow, and I will give you a 50 cent profit the day after tomorrow, by returning to you $6.50. You can take as much advantage of this as you want. In fact, if you like, you can give me $3 this second, $4 in one second, and in the following second I will give you back all your money plus 50 cents profit - that is, I will give you $6.50 in two seconds.

Since you think that 3+4=6, you will jump at this amazing deal.

In response to comment by [deleted] on Conceptual Analysis and Moral Theory
Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 10:34:57PM 0 points [-]

I agree with this, if that makes any difference.

Comment author: Peterdjones 25 May 2011 09:06:03PM *  0 points [-]

I meant the second part: "but when you really drill down there are only beliefs that predict my experience more reliably or less reliably" How do you know that?

That's what I was responding to.

It is not the case that all beliefs can do is predict experience based on existing preferences. Beliefs can also set and modify preferences. I have given that counterargument several times.

Z org: And what pan-galactic value are your objective values? Pan-galactic value is the ultimate value, dontcha know.

I think moral values are ultimate because I can;t think of a valid argument of the form "I should do <immoral thing> because <excuse>". Please give an example of a pangalactic value that can be substituted for ,<excuse>

You just eliminated it: If to assert P is to assert "P is true," then to assert "P is true" is to assert P. We could go back and forth like this for hours.

Yeah,. but it sitll comes back to truth. If I tell you it will increase your happiness to hit yourself on the head with a hammer, your response is going to have to amount to "no, that's not true".

Dictionary says, [objective[ "Not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased."

How can a value be objective?

By being (relatively) uninfluenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased.

Especially since a value is a personal feeling.

You haven't remotely established that as an identity. It is true that some people some of the time arrive at values through feelings. Others arrive at them (or revise them) through facts and thinking.

you are defining "value" differently, how?

"Values can be defined as broad preferences concerning appropriate courses of action or outcomes"

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 10:31:49PM 0 points [-]

I missed this:

If I tell you it will increase your happiness to hit yourself on the head with a hammer, your response is going to have to amount to "no, that's not true".

I'll just decide not to follow the advice, or I'll try it out and then after experiencing pain I will decide not to follow the advice again. I might tell you that, too, but I don't need to use the word "true" or any equivalent to do that. I can just say it didn't work.

Comment author: Peterdjones 25 May 2011 09:40:44PM 1 point [-]

You still don't have a good argument to the effect that no one cares about truth per se.

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 10:20:59PM 0 points [-]

A lot of people care about truth, even when (I suspect) they diminish their enjoyment needlessly by doing so, so no argument there. In the parent I'm just continuing to try to explain why my stance might sound weird. My point from farther above, though, is just that I don't/wouldn't care about "truth" in those rare and odd cases where it is already part of the premises that truth or falsehood will not affect me in any way.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 25 May 2011 09:37:35PM 0 points [-]

It's called that too. Are you just objecting as to what we are calling it?

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 10:17:13PM *  0 points [-]

Yeah, because calling it that makes it pretty hard to understand. If you just mean Collective Greatest Happiness Utilitarianism, then that would be a good name. Objective morality can mean way too many different things. This way at least you're saying in what sense it's supposed to be objective.

As for this collectivism, though, I don't go for it. There is no way to know another's utility function, no way to compare utility functions among people, etc. other than subjectively. And who's going to be the person or group that decides? SIAI? I personally think all this collectivism is a carryover from the idea of (collective) democracy and other silly ideas. But that's a debate for another day.

Comment author: Peterdjones 25 May 2011 09:06:03PM *  0 points [-]

I meant the second part: "but when you really drill down there are only beliefs that predict my experience more reliably or less reliably" How do you know that?

That's what I was responding to.

It is not the case that all beliefs can do is predict experience based on existing preferences. Beliefs can also set and modify preferences. I have given that counterargument several times.

Z org: And what pan-galactic value are your objective values? Pan-galactic value is the ultimate value, dontcha know.

I think moral values are ultimate because I can;t think of a valid argument of the form "I should do <immoral thing> because <excuse>". Please give an example of a pangalactic value that can be substituted for ,<excuse>

You just eliminated it: If to assert P is to assert "P is true," then to assert "P is true" is to assert P. We could go back and forth like this for hours.

Yeah,. but it sitll comes back to truth. If I tell you it will increase your happiness to hit yourself on the head with a hammer, your response is going to have to amount to "no, that's not true".

Dictionary says, [objective[ "Not influenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased."

How can a value be objective?

By being (relatively) uninfluenced by personal feelings, interpretations, or prejudice; based on facts; unbiased.

Especially since a value is a personal feeling.

You haven't remotely established that as an identity. It is true that some people some of the time arrive at values through feelings. Others arrive at them (or revise them) through facts and thinking.

you are defining "value" differently, how?

"Values can be defined as broad preferences concerning appropriate courses of action or outcomes"

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 09:33:48PM *  0 points [-]

It is not the case that all beliefs can do is predict experience based on existing preferences. Beliefs can also set and modify preferences.

I agree, if you mean things like, "If I now believe that she is really a he, I don't want to take 'her' home anymore."

I think moral values are ultimate because I can;t think of a valid argument of the form "I should do <immoral thing> because <excuse>".

Neither can I. I just don't draw the same conclusion. There's a difference between disagreeing with something and not knowing what it means, and I do seriously not know what you mean. I'm not sure why you would think it is veiled disagreement, seeing as lukeprog's whole post was making this very same point about incoherence. (But incoherence also only has meaning in the sense of "incoherent to me" or someone else, so it's not some kind of damning word. It simply means the message is not getting through to me. That could be your fault, my fault, or English's fault, and I don't really care which it is, but it would be preferable for something to actually make it across the inferential gap.)

EDIT: Oops, posted too soon.

"Values can be defined as broad preferences concerning appropriate courses of action or outcomes"

So basically you are saying that preferences can change because of facts/beliefs, right? And I agree with that. To give a more mundane example, if I learn Safeway doesn't carry egg nog and I want egg nog, I may no longer want to go to Safeway. If I learn that egg nog is bad for my health, I may no longer want egg nog. If I believe health doesn't matter because the Singularity is near, I may want egg nog again. If I believe that egg nog is actually made of human brains, I may not want it anymore.

At bottom, I act to get enjoyment and/or avoid pain, that is, to win. What actions I believe will bring me enjoyment will indeed vary depending on my beliefs. But it is always ultimately that winning/happiness/enjoyment/fun//deliciousness/pleasure that I am after, and no change in belief can change that. I could take short-term pain for long-term gain, but that would be because I feel better doing that than not.

But it seems to me that just because what I want can be influenced by what could be called objective or factual beliefs doesn't make my want for deliciousness "uninfluenced by personal feelings."

In summary, value/preferences can either be defined to include (1) only personal feelings (though they may be universal or semi-universal), or to also include (2) beliefs about what would or wouldn't lead to such personal feelings. I can see how you mean that 2 could be objective, and then would want to call them thus "objective values." But not for 1, because personal feelings are, well, personal.

If so, then it seems I am back to my initial response to lukeprog and ensuing brief discussion. In short, if it is only the belief in objective facts that is wrong, then I wouldn't want to call that morality, but more just self-help, or just what the whole rest of LW is. It is not that someone could be wrong about their preferences/values 1, but preferences/values 2.

Comment author: Peterdjones 25 May 2011 08:45:54PM 0 points [-]

Sure, people usually argue whether something is "true or false" because such status makes a difference (at least potentially) to their pain or pleasure, happiness, utility, etc.

So you say. I can think of two arguments against that: people acquire true beliefs that aren't immediately useful, and untrue beliefs can be pleasing.

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 09:19:16PM 0 points [-]

I never said they had to be "immediately useful" (hardly anything ever is). Untrue beliefs might be pleasing, but when people are arguing truth and falsehood it is not in order to prove that the beliefs they hold are untrue so that they can enjoy believing them, so it's not an objection either.

Comment author: ArisKatsaris 25 May 2011 07:52:01PM 1 point [-]

Not quite my point. I'm not talking about what your preferences would be. That would be subjective, personal. I'm talking about what everyone's meta-ethical preferences would be, if self-consistent, and abstracted enough.

My argument is essentially that objective morality can be considered the position in meta-ethical-space which if occupied by all agents would lead to the maximization of utility.

That makes it objectively (because it refers to all the agents, not some of them, or one of them) different from other points in meta-ethical-space, and so it can be considered to lead to an objectively better morality.

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 08:01:05PM 0 points [-]

Then why not just call it "universal morality"?

Comment author: [deleted] 25 May 2011 07:11:02PM 0 points [-]

There's no particular connection between morality and arithmetic that I'm aware of. I brought up arithmetic to illustrate a point. My hope was that arithmetic is less problematic, less apt to lead us down philosophical blind allies, so that by using it to illustrate a point I wasn't opening up yet another can of worms.

In response to comment by [deleted] on Conceptual Analysis and Moral Theory
Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 07:38:09PM 0 points [-]

Then you basically seem to be saying I should signal a certain morality if I want to get on well in society. Well I do agree.

Comment author: Peterdjones 25 May 2011 02:15:11PM 0 points [-]

The fact that you are not going to worry about morality, does not make morality a) false b) meaningless or c) subjective. Can I take it you are no longer arguing for any of claims a) b) or c) ?

I've never argued (a), I'm still arguing (actually just informing you) that the words "objective morality" are meaningless to me

You are not actually being all that informative, since there remains a distinct supsicion that when you say some X is meaningless-to-you, that is a proxy for I-don't-agree-with-it. I notice throughout these discussions that you never reference accepted dictiionary definitions as a basis for meaningfullness, but instead always offer some kind of idiosyncratic personal testimony.

and I'm still arguing (c) but only in the sense that it is equivalent to (b): in other words, I can only await some argument that morality is objective. (But first I'd need a definition!)

What is wrong with dictionary definitions?

You have not succeeded in showing that winning is the most important thing.

I'm using the word winning as a synonym for "getting what I want," and I understand the most important thing to mean "what I care about most."

That doesn't affect anything. You still have no proof for the revised version.

And I mean "want" and "care about" in a way that makes it tautological. Keep in mind I want other people to be happy

Other people out there in the non-existent Objective World?

, not suffer, etc. Nothing either of us have argued so far indicates we would necessarily have different moral sentiments about anything.

I don't think moral anti-realists are generally immoral people. I do think it is an intellectual mistake, whether or not you care about that.

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 07:36:31PM -1 points [-]

You are not actually being all that informative, since there remains a distinct supsicion that when you say some X is meaningless-to-you, that is a proxy for I-don't-agree-with-it.

Zorg said the same thing about his pan-galactic ethics.

I notice throughout these discussions that you never reference accepted dictiionary definitions as a basis for meaningfullness, but instead always offer some kind of idiosyncratic personal testimony.

Did you even read the post we're commenting on?

That doesn't affect anything. You still have no proof for the revised version.

Wait, you want proof that getting what I want is what I care about most?

Other people out there in the non-existent Objective World?

Read what I wrote again.

I don't think moral anti-realists are generally immoral peopl

Read.

Comment author: Peterdjones 25 May 2011 02:01:20PM *  0 points [-]

Solipsism is an ontological stance: in short, "there is nothing out there but my own mind." I am saying something slightly different: "To speak of there being something/nothing out there is meaningless to me unless I can see why to care." Then again, I'd say this is tautological/obvious in that "meaning" just is "why it matters to me."

Do you cross the road with your eyes shut? If not, you are assuming, like everyone else, that there are things out there which are terminally disutiilitous.

My "position" (really a meta-position about philosophical positions) is just that language obscures what is going on.

Whose language ? What language? If you think all language is a problem, what do you intend to replace it with?

I'm not a naturalist. I'm not skeptical of "objective" because of such reasons; I am skeptical of it merely because I don't know what the word refers to

It refers to the stuff that doesn't go away when you stop believing in it.

Comment author: Amanojack 25 May 2011 07:28:31PM *  -1 points [-]

"To speak of there being something/nothing out there is meaningless to me unless I can see why to care."

Do you cross the road with your eyes shut? If not, you are assuming, like everyone else, that there are things out there which are terminally disutiilitous.

Note the bold.

Whose language ? What language?

English, and all the rest that I know of.

If you think all language is a problem, what do you intend to replace it with?

Something better would be nice, but what of it? I am simply saying that language obscures what is going on. You may or may not find that insight useful.

It refers to the stuff that doesn't go away when you stop believing in it.

If so, I suggest "permanent" as a clearer word choice.

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