Intuition and induction are in my view very similar to what is understood as faith.
I don't see how this works. Induction is, basically, the principle of inferring the future from the past (or the past from the present), which basically requires the universe to consistently obey the same laws. The problem with this, of course, is that the only evidence we have that the future will be like the past is the fact that it always has been, so there's a necessary circularity. You can't provide evidence for induction without assuming induction is correct; indeed, the very concept of "evidence" assumes induction is correct.
Intuition, on the other hand, is entirely susceptible to being analyzed on its merits. If our intuition tends to be right, we are justified in relying on it, even if we don't understand precisely how it works. If it isn't typically right for certain things, or if it contradicts other, better evidence, we're wrong to rely on it, even though believing contrary to our intuition can be difficult.
I don't see how either of these concepts can be equated with a conventional use of "faith."
Edited in response to EY's comment below: I'm not meaning to compare faith in induction to faith in religion at all. The "leap" involved differs extraordinarily, as one is against evidence and the other is evidence. Not to mention every religious person also believes in induction, so the faith required for religion is necessarily in addition to that required by everyone to not get hit by a bus.
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I'm surprised that a post that basically does nothing but acknowledge inductive bias is presently at -2.
I had not read that part. Thanks.
I do not see any difference in inductive bias as it is written there and dictionary and wikipedia definitions of faith: