Comment author: gwern 07 July 2011 06:42:04PM 2 points [-]

As well, I don't see any obvious way to attack it with Bayesian tools. (As Hamming reminds us in "You and Your Research"*, what makes a problem important is not what consequences solving it would have (like FTL or antigravity) but whether you have any productive lines of attack on it. What questions have the highest marginal return?)

The only consideration I can think of even close to the insightfulness of komponisto's analysis of how the coverup is the only hard question in the Knox case would be to ask how often mothers cover up a murder of their children they were not culpable in. And when you ask it like that, then Anthony looks highly likely to be guilty.

* Serendipitously, I just learned there's apparently an expanded book form available online

Comment author: AnlamK 10 July 2011 01:49:32AM *  0 points [-]

The only consideration I can think of even close to the insightfulness of komponisto's analysis of how the coverup is the only hard question in the Knox case would be to ask how often mothers cover up a murder of their children they were not culpable in. And when you ask it like that, then Anthony looks highly likely to be guilty.

This morning I read the following. I still don't have statistics on this but this should be relevant:

Nicholson, who worked as a social worker on the child abuse team at Dayton Children’s before becoming director of Care House in 1998, said there are facts about the case that she finds extremely troubling. “What I can tell you definitively is that the parents of children who die accidentally don’t lie about it; they don’t wait 31 days before reporting the deaths, and those are facts of this case that are seemingly indisputable,” Nicholson said.

Comment author: komponisto 08 July 2011 05:20:59AM *  3 points [-]

Someone made a very useful post like this for the Amanda Knox case

Link. ;-)

My gut feeling is that most people have not bothered to weight the evidence, but look at the surface layers of the case and judge based on questionable heuristics.

Indeed. My own more specific theory is that people -- this includes juries, by the way -- judge these cases by first sizing up the defendant's personality and deciding how much they sympathize with him or her (in almost all cases, the answer is "very little"), deriving a prior for guilt directly from that, and then looking at other evidence in the case to see whether it confirms this initial impression. This theory accounts nicely for the otherwise perplexing emphasis that people put on psychological evidence such as the defendant's "lies", both in the Knox case (where this negative impression is based on misinformation and misunderstanding) and in the Anthony case (where the defendant does appear to have behaved in an authentically unsympathetic fashion).

FWIW, my take on the case is that (from what I know from very limited media exposure) there is a substantial probability that Anthony is guilty of murder, well over 10%, possibly over 50%, but very likely well below the 99% or so that I would consider "beyond reasonable doubt". In this, the case is sharply distinguished from that of Knox, where in my view the hypothesis of guilt lacks sufficient evidence even to be considered.

Comment author: AnlamK 08 July 2011 06:24:24AM *  0 points [-]

komponisto, I would be very interested in reading if you decided to do a similar post (to the Knox case post you had) for this case as well - even if it's just a discussion post.

Also, you say that p(Anthony=guilty) is 'possibly over %50'. Let's assume it's %50.

This claim could be interpreted as the following. Suppose that there are X many possible scenarios for what happened, given the constraints of our evidence about the case. In X/2 Anthony is guilty and in X/2, she is not guilty.

This seems implausible to me. X/2 alternate scenarios (scenarios that don't involve Anthony's guilt) seem too many.

What other alternate scenarios are there?

Comment author: AlexMennen 08 July 2011 02:16:47AM 1 point [-]

Sounds like Casey is overwhelmingly likely to be guilty. It also sounds plausible, but unlikely (and maybe more evidence makes it less likely; this post is all I've read on the matter), than Cindy killed Cayley.

Comment author: AnlamK 08 July 2011 06:14:28AM *  1 point [-]

Let me note that most (all?) of this evidence is contested by the defense. Juror #3 Jennifer Ford, in her post-verdict interview with ABC news, said that she didn't believe the evidence based on chloroform.

The stench similarly was also contested.

I personally think that Case Anthony at least caused the death of Cayley that involved criminal elements. So, I am biased - I've made up my mind. I could change it if someone could explain all of the above in a more plausible way.

Judging by the public uproar, I guess that most people think she is guilty. Even the jurors themselves said that they 'were sick to their stomachs' in delivering the verdict, which is a strange display of human psychology.

Comment author: RobertLumley 07 July 2011 07:14:34PM *  2 points [-]

The things that need to be distinguished are "guilty" and "committed murder". "Not guilty" and "innocent" are very, very different terms. I haven't met anyone who thinks she didn't commit the murder, but A. was there enough evidence to prove it, and B. Did the prosecution actually prove it? Maybe, and absolutely not.

The other thing that's bothered me as of late about a purely Bayesian approach is this: I'm reading Elizer's OB posts in order from the beginning, and I'm almost to 2008. Perhaps he addresses it at some point, but he hasn't yet in my reading. (I've also read the intuitive explanation, but having had three separate statistics classes, Bayes was a subject I understood pretty well to begin with.)

Shouldn't there be some accounting of the standard deviation of your estimate of your priors? If I have a prior that I've reached by amounting ten bits of evidence, that is quite different from a prior that I've reached by amounting one bit of evidence. I don't see how a traditionally Bayesian approach takes this into account.

(And sorry that's somewhat off topic, it's just bothered me for awhile now.)

Comment author: AnlamK 07 July 2011 07:25:30PM *  -1 points [-]

What exactly do people mean by 'proof'? With near certainty, almost nothing can be proven.

Since the body decomposed under the soil for 30 days, it's really hard to determine the precise case of death - even though I think some prosecution witnesses made the argument that it was a homicide. It's hard to link the murderer with the body, since the body was discovered so much later.

I think the prosecution had enough 'circumstantial evidence' to get a conviction. I think that beyond a reasonable doubt, Casey Anthony was responsible for the child's death. It may not have been murder but something happened to that child which this woman tried to cover up.

I know that the law works under the presumption of innocence but I wonder why prosecution was assumed to be under such burden of proof. Doesn't the defense also have a burden to explain the duct tape, the stench, etc.? Has the defense met that burden? I don't think so.

Comment author: AnlamK 07 July 2011 07:06:17PM *  1 point [-]

Thanks for posting this.

I don't know about Bayes but I think Occam's razor (simplest explanation for the data) indicates that most likely she's guilty of murder. Here are the relevant events (as evidence) that I'm thinking about:

  • Casey Anthony borrowed a shovel from her neighbor on June 18th 2008. Cayley Anthony was last seen alive on June 15th 2008.

  • There were search queries like chloroform, 'how to break a neck' (and others) found on Casey Anthony's computer - through reconstructed Firefox cache browser. The computer files were deleted to hide the data, so special software was used to reconstruct the data.

  • There was a month between the last time Cayley Anthony was seen alive and the time she was reported as missing. When she was reported as missing, it was the grandmother, Casey Anthony's mother Cindy Anthony, who reported it.

  • During that month, Casey Anthony was seen as partying and entering 'hot-body' contests.
  • In Cindy Anthony's call to 911, she describes the stench in Casey Anthony's car as a foul smell 'as if someone died in there'.
  • The body was found only a quarter a mile away from the house where here parents and Casey Anthony live.
  • There was a duct tape with the skeletal remains of the body. Same type of duct tape was also found in Anthony household.

I could go on and on and on...

The jurors acquitted Casey Anthony on the basis that there was no connection between her and the dead body of the child and that prosecutors weren't able to prove a link between her and the dead body of the child.

My reaction is that if you look at all the circumstantial evidence, the simplest explanation that fits all the data is that she probably killed her child. Yes, you can have someone just curious about chloroform searching google. Yes, it may also have been food rotting in the car. Yes, Casey Anthony may have borrowed the shovel for gardening - but if you string together all these explanations, the final conjunction of all of them just becomes a lot less probable.

Comment author: Tyrrell_McAllister 16 May 2011 01:18:16PM *  19 points [-]

I'm thinking of Robert Nozick's definition. He states his definition thus:

  1. P is true
  2. S believes that P
  3. If it were the case that (not-P), S would not believe that P
  4. If it were the case that P, S would believe that P

There is a reason why the Gettier rabbit-hole is so dangerous. You can always cook up an improbable counterexample to any definition.

For example, here is a counterexample to Nozick's definition as you present it. Suppose that I have irrationally decided to believe everything written in a certain book B and to believe nothing not written in B. Unfortunately for me, the book's author, a Mr. X, is a congenital liar. He invented almost every claim in the book out of whole cloth, with no regard for the truth of the matter. There was only one exception. There is one matter on which Mr. X is constitutionally compelled to write and to write truthfully: the color of his mother's socks on the day of his birth. At one point in B, Mr. X writes that his mother was wearing blue socks when she gave birth to him. This claim was scrupulously researched and is true. However, there is nothing in the text of B to indicate that Mr. X treated this claim any differently from all the invented claims in the book.

In this story, I am S, and P is "Mr. X's mother was wearing blue socks when she gave birth to him." Then:

  1. P is true. (Mr. X's mother really was wearing blue socks.)

  2. S believes that P. (Mr. X claimed P in B, and I believe everything in B.)

  3. If it were the case that (not-P), S would not believe that P. (Mr. X only claimed P in B because that was what his scrupulous research revealed. Had P not been true, Mr. X's research would not have led him to believe it. And, since he is incapable of lying about this matter, he would not have put P in B. Therefore, since I don't believe anything not in B, I would not have come to believe P.)

  4. If it were the case that P, S would believe that P. (Mr. X was constitutionally compelled to write truthfully about what the color of his mother's socks were when he was born. In all possible worlds in which his mother wore blue socks, Mr. X's scrupulous research would have discovered it, and Mr. X would have reported it in B, where I would have read it, and so believed it.)

And yet, the intuitions on which Gettier problems play would say that I don't know P. I just believe P because it was in a certain book, but I have no rational reason to trust anything in that book.


ETA: And here's a counterexample from the other direction — that is, an example of knowledge that fails to meet Nozick's criteria.

Suppose that you sit before an upside-down cup, under which there is a ping-pong ball that has been painted some color. Your job is to learn the color of the ping-pong ball.

You employ the following strategy: You flip a coin. If the coin comes up heads, you lift up the cup and look at the ping-pong ball, noting its color. If the coin comes up tails, you just give up and go with the ignorance prior.

Suppose that, when you flip the coin, it comes up heads. Accordingly, you look at the ping-pong ball and see that it is red. Intuitively, we would say that you know that the ping-pong ball is red.

Nonetheless, we fail to meet Nozick's criterion 4. Had the coin come up tails, you would not have lifted the cup, so you would not have come to believe that the ball is red, even if this were still true.

Comment author: AnlamK 17 May 2011 09:19:52PM *  2 points [-]

There is a reason why the Gettier rabbit-hole is so dangerous. You can always cook up an improbable counterexample to any definition.

That's a very interesting thought. I wonder what leads you to it.

With the caveat that I have not read all of this thread:

*Are you basing this on the fact that so far, all attempts at analysis have proven futile? (If so, maybe we need to come up with more robust conditions.)

*Do you think that the concept of 'knowledge' is inherently vague similar (but not identical) to the way terms like 'tall' and 'bald' are?

*Do you suspect that there may be no fact of the matter about what 'knowledge' is, just like there is no fact of the matter about the baldness of the present King of France? (If so, then how do the competent speakers apply the verb 'to know' so well?)

If we could say with confidence that conceptual analysis of knowledge is a futile effort, I think that would be progress. And of course the interesting question would be why.

It may just be simply that non-technical, common terms like 'vehicle' and 'knowledge' (and of course others like 'table') can't be conceptually analyzed.

Also, experimental philosophy could be relevant to this discussion.

Comment author: AnlamK 01 April 2011 08:04:50PM 12 points [-]

If our situation controls our behavior (let's try to bracket "to what extent" and "how" it does so), then wouldn't it also control what kind of situation we will go for?

Here's an example from an Orwell essay: "A man may take to drink because he feels himself to be a failure, and then fail all the more completely because he drinks."

And then I've always wondered about the following: If situationism is true, why do the folk have such a robust theory of character traits? Can we provide an error theory for why people have such a theory?

Note that the folk do seem to allow for some 'situationism' - for example, when someone gets drunk, we admit they'll have a different persona and some more than others.

Comment author: AnlamK 20 March 2011 10:34:44AM 0 points [-]

Thursdays 7pm is a little tough for me. I have a chess game at my chess club 8pm every Thursday. Weekends work better for me.

Nonetheless, thanks for organizing.

In response to Yes, a blog.
Comment author: AnlamK 19 November 2010 10:06:46PM *  1 point [-]

Sorry, you'll have to excuse a bit of my ignorance here.

Classical philosophers like Hume came up with some great ideas, too, especially considering that they had no access to modern scientific knowledge. But you don't have to spend thousands of hours reading through their bad ideas to find the few good ones, because their best ideas have become modern scientific knowledge.

What are some of Hume's "bad" ideas? He's a philosopher I cherish quite a bit. I'd be interested to know what his "bad" ideas are. (Have you read Hume at all? Or anything about Hume?)

You don't have to read Kant to think abstractly about Time; thinking about "timelines" is practically built into our language nowadays.

I think reading Kant about "Time" (why capital T?) could be a bad idea, since so many ideas about space and time were influenced by modern physics. (For instance, Kant thought that physical space, a priori, was Euclidean - please correct me if I'm misinterpreting Kant here-, which is unfortunate but completely reasonable.)

I think the most exciting idea Kant had was his attempt to establish a "Copernican Revolution" in philosophy - that our perception of the world and minds were somehow limited and subject to constraints like any other object in the world. I will direct all interested parties to this podcast .

Comment author: Douglas_Knight 02 October 2010 12:48:57AM 2 points [-]

Your wikipedia link claims that the fez & turban were banned in 1925 and the veil and (again!) turban in 1934. Do you know these laws? Could you confirm that the text matches wikipedia's description? or not - perhaps these are the famous laws that cover universities? (I can't follow google's translation) How does this fit in your understanding of history?

While Yvain's story doesn't sound terribly plausible to me, deducing law from the present state is tricky.

Comment author: AnlamK 02 October 2010 05:48:15AM *  1 point [-]

Do you know these laws?

The laws I know ban wearing the veil/turban (i mean the same thing by these two words) in government-related places - you can't wear it in the work place if you are working for a government, can't wear it in public universities, can't wear it in the TBMM (the Turkish congress) etc. etc... You are free to wear it on the street or in the workplace if you are working for a private company. I may be mistaken - the ban covering the universities is the most famous and contentious.

Could you confirm that the text matches wikipedia's description?

Which text? I've not read the wikipedia entry - just linked to it, thinking it would repeat what I already know.

How does this fit in your understanding of history?

You mean Yvain's story? It makes no sense. In 1920s, Turkey was largely being rebuilt after WW1 and the Turkish War of Independence. The legal system/constitution was being overhauled. The Arabic script was replaced with the Latin script. It is said that in one day, the entire country became illiterate - i.e. nobody understood the new alphabet at first.

With so much going on, I find it funny that Atatürk would pause and decree laws about prostitution. Consider me biased, but I think Atatürk had more urgent things to attend.

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