Comment author: mantimeforgot 27 July 2010 04:42:51AM *  -4 points [-]

I am glad that there are people other than myself who find the notion of "emergent phenomena" to be code word for "magic" or "ignorance." Quite frankly I am mystified by how learned people, presumably taught the scientific method, could be so enamored with so called "emergent phenomena" but then I recall that practically the whole discipline of modern cosmology is little more than dressed up religion (anyone here know what possible cosmological consequences "Dark Energy" or "Dark Matter" have). But in that vein it bares mentioning that if it is impossible to discriminate between two things, then they are logically identical. Magic = achieving work through methods that do not involve "work effecting activity." Emergent phenomena = quality achieving methods that do not involve "quality achieving activity."

In order to deal with the topic of Emergent Phenomena one is required to comprehend what is called "Supervenience." I will leave it to the readers to explore Supervenience at their own discretion. (Standford encyclopedia of philosophy has a good article on it). Suffice it to say that some people have managed to convince themselves that a form of Supervenience can exist whereby "Top down causation" can occur.

Strong claims to emergent phenomena (which are essentially arguments regarding causation) require that the Supervenient qualities occur out of nowhere. This would be like in real life saying that Kinetic Energy occurs without there being any potential energy. Potential energy is not itself energy; hence the POTENTIAL part of its name. So can anyone point out why we "assume" the existence of potential energy in matter but that "potential intelligence" is not present in neurons?

Weak claims to emergent phenomena (which are essentially classification arguments) reference sets which include all objects in the universe (as Eliezer has pointed out), and as such are completely devoid of explanatory powers. Technically all things in the universe are "emergent properties" of physics. But we could potentially explain everything in the universe "if we had perfect knowledge of physics." We would need something like Laplace's daemon, but with perfect predictability we could derive neurochemistry. Once you have perfect neurochemistry knowledge, you can derive economics or any other set of behaviors you wish.

Example: When two triangles are brought together a square is the result (technically a quadrilateral, but I am keeping it simple). There is no property of triangles that is equivalent with "squareness." So "squareness" can be said to be an emergent property of triangles. Right now every person reading this should realize that something fishy is going on. Each triangle has "potential squareness" as part of its "list of qualities that it possesses." So when two triangles are brought together you get a square. You do not get something for nothing. The only difference between the triangles in this example and everything described as "emergent" is the degree of complexity.

The "proper way" Emergent Property is supposed to be used is when you have a universe of discourse that is random and note that "small sections of apparent order" occur. These properties are then "emergent" as they are not connected with any law that the universe itself possesses. The problem is that any application of this to a level of reality short of applying it to reality itself is entirely inconsistent with all non-paraconsistent logics.

A truly random "thing" does not exist. Such a "thing" could not interact with any thing we are aware of, since any interaction involves a two-way quality exchange/copy/removal,etc. Does anyone here have any idea what "mono-interactive interaction" looks like? The only way to achieve that is to have a "nothing" do something.

The very definition of "Nothing" is that it lacks any and all qualities. No qualities means no abilities. No abilities means "doing" is impossible. Nothing does not result in a change in anything.

Just because you are not aware of all the causal factors DOES NOT mean that there do not exist any causal factors. You can use this for any possible "emergent phenomena." Just because you are not aware of selection mechanisms for quantum physics does not mean that there are no selection mechanisms. Repeat ad nauseum.

MTF

Comment author: BlackHumor 17 October 2010 10:39:35PM 1 point [-]

"(anyone here know what possible cosmological consequences "Dark Energy" or "Dark Matter" have)"

Ok, this is the point where I started to question your logic (incidentally, apology for the tangent).

I agree that Dark Matter and Dark Energy feel like epicycles and phlogiston. HOWEVER, they also feel like that or felt like that at one point to all actual physicists.

Therefore, if you claim that they do not exist, you must both know what the standard answer to that question is (for if there is no standard answer science would have abandoned those concepts long ago), and also why it is wrong, or in short you must know more about physics than every physicist on earth.

That is not quite so hard to do as it seems on first glance; Einstein did it. Maxwell did it. Planck did it. But it is important to realize that the chance that every scientist on Earth is wrong about thing X is significantly greater than the chance you just don't understand thing X.

In response to comment by Whisper on Sayeth the Girl
Comment author: SoullessAutomaton 22 July 2009 10:44:47AM 11 points [-]

English evolved in a time period, predominatly ruled over by men. Hence, the default term is: "Mankind", "Man", and the default, when gender is uncertain, is to use "Man", "Him", or derivatives of such.

In Old English, the word "man" was gender-neutral, while the words for male and female were something like wer and wif. The compound word wifman, meaning "female human" is what evolved into the modern word "woman" (interestingly, the word wer survives most commonly in "werewolf", which as you can see literally means man-wolf, and distinctly male). Cognates of "man", such as the German Mensch in fact remain gender neutral.

The gender-neutral third-person singular pronoun is "they", with documented use at least as far back as Chaucer and Shakespeare.

Comment author: BlackHumor 03 June 2010 04:01:33AM 3 points [-]

And even ignoring that, "English was like this" is no reason for it to continue to be like that if the alternative is perfectly understandable. Languages change all the time for all kinds of reasons; we don't use the complex system of verb tenses from Old English, or hither, thither and wither, or yon and yonder, (etc.), so why should we feel obligated to use its pronouns? (side note: which were not the same as modern English pronouns; "you" used to be a second person plural object only, it was thee and thou singular and ye and you plural.)

But yes, "man" used to be gender neutral, and for most of the history of English "they" was the gender neutral third person singular.

In response to comment by binary on The Opposite Sex
Comment author: FAWS 13 March 2010 12:58:49PM *  4 points [-]

Which of these is in your opinion not true?

  • The more similar people are to you, the easier they tend to be to understand.

  • People of the same sex are on average significantly more similar to each other than people of different sex.

  • There is no magical force compensating for differences caused or implied by sex involved in understanding each other.

In response to comment by FAWS on The Opposite Sex
Comment author: BlackHumor 18 May 2010 02:16:16AM *  3 points [-]

I have to say for myself mostly two, with criticism of the underlying assumption of one that tends to negate three as well. So, uh, all of them. Still mostly two though:

All people are so similar to each other it should be trivial to understand them with any real effort. The differences between men and women on average are tiny compared to differences between individuals, which are themselves tiny compared to the massive similarities between all human beings.

(A lot of people seem to take for granted that their mind works mostly the same as the mind of the person they are talking to; all I have to say to that is that the very ability to have a conversation that makes any sense at all is a function of the two of you having a very similar mental structure. You would not have a good time talking to someone who did not have the concept "you", for example.

Given that you can have a conversation with someone, the two of you are sufficiently similar to understand each other with fairly little effort.)

Comment author: pengvado 03 December 2009 07:24:19AM *  2 points [-]

What's the difference between a "programming error" and an "emergent consequence of the program as written", other than whether the programmers decide they like the result? Is it just a question of whether the rules involved can be described intuitively at the level of user-interface objects rather than lines of code?

Comment author: BlackHumor 18 May 2010 01:01:07AM 0 points [-]

Answer to your question: Honestly, I should not have included that line about errors in there at all; it doesn't need to be special cased out because most errors are emergent. (Not always; a missing negative somewhere is not emergent. But when you get to the complexity of a video game, most errors that will make it through QA are emergent.)

But also: I actually have thought about this a bit since I wrote this, and I think I can come up with a decent general definition for emergence: (don't worry, I'll get to your question in a moment)

Something is emergent when it is caused by a rule that works similarly to the second law of thermodynamics. (More specifically, the property of the second law that it isn't actually a hard law at all; it's just that when you crunch all the probabilities for all the particles involved, it is vastly more likely that the result will obey the second law then will not.)

Similarly, the ways economies develop aren't hard laws; it would be entirely possible for an economy to develop in such a way that it lets you get a free lunch. It's just that that, considering all the actors involved are out to find and take those free lunches, that you are about (using about very broadly here) as likely to find an actual free lunch as you are to find your foot has suddenly turned into gold.

(Also: I think it's a mistake to point at some finished product of laws of emergence and say it's emergent. "The economy is emergent" is just a short and slightly misleading way to say "The laws that govern an economy are laws of emergence".)

But going back to what this predicts: It predicts mainly that there is something equivalent to atoms in thermodynamics or actors in economics; some small unit of behavior that you can test for. It also predicts (in very complex systems it might not be possible to do any actual math on this, but in theory it predicts) how often the law will fail. (As noted, sometimes all you can say with confidence is "it might fail sometime"; of course if it fails OFTEN it doesn't have enough predictive value to justify keeping around.)

Comment author: BlackHumor 03 December 2009 04:00:07AM 4 points [-]

Most of this is specific to videogames and probably will not be applicable anywhere else:

An emergent property in the context of videogames is one the designers of the game did not intend, [more strictly: yet is not a programming error].

Excluding the possibly, since this example is ambiguous using it:

In the game Super Smash Bros, jumping is not emergent, since the designers programmed it into the game specifically.

Wavedashing [dodging into the ground so that you will be able to move while attacking] (and in fact, every single bit of strategy for every character) is emergent; it's not programmed into the game, it's just that if you put together all the intended rules of the game, wavedashing appears also.

What does "this is emergent" tell you, in this context?

It tells you first of all it's unintentional, which then tells you it has a vastly greater chance of being unbalanced or broken.

Using the stricter definition, it also tells you whatever it is profits the player in some way, because if it did not profit the player in some way it would not have emerged; someone would have found it, not used it or told anyone, and it would just fade away. (But this is only valid for emergent things when they're structured in a certain way. This part can be generalized to, say, the economy, but not, say, to traffic jams, because traffic jams are more tragedy of the commons types of things.)

It also tells you, most importantly, that it is probably not possible to know all the specific causes of this thing and instead to try wide and general causes. (i.e: "World War I happened because of a general attitude among nations that military force was a good way to solve problems." It's possible to say it happened "because Alice thought... and Bob thought... but Carol thought... and Dave thought....", but this is going to be either much less accurate or not worth the effort to make it accurate.)

What does "this is non-emergent" tell you?

There are one or more obvious specific causes that it would not be worth breaking down. (In the case of videogames, the developers, but it also works for cases like "there is a big dent in the front of my car because I crashed it into a tree" [but wait, you say, isn't that also phrasable as "because the force from the tree caused this molecule and this molecule and this molecule to move backwards"? Yes, but it doesn't matter; the only cause is still the force from the tree.])

(Finally, random other example I thought of after reading the Go example:

In chess, the position of the pieces at the beginning of the game is not emergent: there is one cause for that: because it's part of the rules of the game.

The fact that the best first move for white in most cases is pawn to e4 is emergent. Nobody wrote that into the rules of chess; it's just a consequence of the positions of the pieces.)

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