I think the empirical claims of feminism are now successful, but they did exist.
I can't seem to parse this literally. Do you mean that some past empirical claims of feminism are no longer true do the success of the political advocacy of feminism? That seems true (with some controversy on the degree of 'some').
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Well, what percentage of women would you anticipate regard it as the former versus the latter?
I think that's actually the common model that sex is something women have and men want. So, which of the two simply depends on whether you're inclined to grant it or not, and on the side you view it from. This may be an unrelated phenomenon to dom/sub (or, alternately, the source of a dom/sub effect.)