Comment author: pianoforte611 05 February 2014 06:16:36AM *  0 points [-]

This is beginning to sound like burden of proof tennis, I claim that most causes can not be currently quantified to any useful degree, therefore restricting yourself to the quantifiable ones is a mistake. This isn't a problem that can be brute forced - what will be the effect of say open borders? Or human genetic engineering? Or charter cities? Or a new Standard Model of Physics? Or Basic Income guarantees? No one has a damned clue, although many would like to pretend. This list goes on and on.

But even for the somewhat quantifiable causes, the long term effects cannot be quantified. What is the effect of significant charitable giving on a person's other spending patterns? Does giving to charity reduce the number of children that effective altruists have, and is this a dysgenic effect? If so, is the dysgenic effect compensated for by the effects of the charity? Are effects such as this a problem? How does charitable giving affect the giver's work patterns, ambitions and life's trajectory? And of course, what is the long term effect of charitable giving on the target country's development and institutions? That last effect is probably where most of the positive consequences of giving show up, not silly short term metrics like DALYs. GiveWell's research into long term effects is noticeably much less than their research into short term effects - even though the long term effects dominate in the long run.

Comment author: IainM 05 February 2014 12:35:19PM *  0 points [-]

Retracted.

Comment author: IainM 15 January 2014 07:48:41PM 0 points [-]

Why the time factor? I don't find it particularly matches my intuitions directly, and as pointed out it makes having children arbitrarily bad (which also doesn't match my intuitions). Say we give each person's death a particular negative utility - histories in which they die get that single penalty regardless of time (though other independent time factors might apply, such as the sadness of their loved ones). Does that fit any better or worse with your conception of death morality?

(Incidentally, I was thinking about this just a few hours ago. Interesting how reading the same comment can trigger similar lines of thought.)

In response to Anthropic Atheism
Comment author: DanielLC 13 January 2014 03:14:28AM 11 points [-]

Suppose sleeping beauty secretly brings a coin into the experiment and flips when she wakes up. There are now six possible combinations of heads and tails, each with their own possibilities:

HH: 1/4

HT: 1/4

THH: 1/8

THT: 1/8

TTH: 1/8

TTT: 1/8

When she wakes up and flips the coin, she notices it lands on heads. This eliminates two of the possibilites. Now renormalizing their values:

HH: 2/5

HT: 0

THH: 1/5

THT: 1/5

TTH: 1/5

TTT: 0

She can conclude that the coin landed on tails with 60% probability, rather than the normal 50% probability. She could flip the coins more times. Doing so, she will asymptotically approach 2/3 probability that it landed on tails.

Perhaps she gets caught with the coin, and has it taken away. This isn't a problem. She can just look at dust specks, or any other thing she can't predict and won't be consistent. For all intents and purposes, she's using SSA. There's a difference if she's woken so many times that it's likely she'll make exactly the same observations more than once, but that takes her being woken order of 10^million times.

In response to comment by DanielLC on Anthropic Atheism
Comment author: IainM 13 January 2014 08:31:17AM *  0 points [-]

I think this is mistaken in that eliminating the HT and TTT possibilities isn't the only update SB can make on seeing heads. Conditioning on a particular sequence of flips, an observation of heads is certain under the HH or THH sequences, but only 50% likely under the THT or TTH sequences, so SB should adjust probabilities accordingly and consequently end up with no new information about the initial flip.

HOWEVER. The above logic relies on the assumption that this is a coherent and useful way to consider probabilities in this kind of anthropic problem, and that's not an assumption I accept. So take with a grain of salt.

Comment author: IainM 10 January 2014 09:53:18PM 2 points [-]

Looks interesting - I've signed up. Definitely interested in a study group too, both as an external motivator and hopefully to get more value from the course.

Comment author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 24 September 2013 03:32:21PM 1 point [-]

Otherwise you will most likely struggle against the abstractness with few chances to understand what's truly going on.

Yes, it's not as if the textbooks will give you any examples.

Comment author: IainM 24 September 2013 03:50:16PM *  4 points [-]

Well, yeah, any run-of-the-mill category theory textbook will of course load you down with examples. That doesn't mean they'll give you the background instruction necessary to understand those examples. It's all very well being told that the classic example of a non-concretizable category is the category of topological spaces and homotopy classes of continuous maps between them - if you've never taken a topology course, you won't have any idea what that means, and the book isn't going to include a beginner's topology textbook as a footnote.

Comment author: Bugmaster 21 November 2012 09:37:48PM 2 points [-]

It seems like you and Hul-Gil are using different formulae for evaluating utility (or, rather, disutility); and, therefore, you are talking past each other.

While Hul-Gil is looking solely at the immediate purchasing power of each individual, you are considering ripple effects affecting the economy as a whole. Thus, while stealing a single penny from a single individual may have negligible disutility, removing 1e9 such pennies from 1e9 individuals will have a strong negative effect on the economy, thus reducing the effective purchasing power of everyone, your victims included.

This is a valid point, but it doesn't really lend any support to either side in your argument with Hul-Gil, since you're comparing apples and oranges.

Comment author: IainM 22 November 2012 01:34:46PM *  1 point [-]

I'm pretty sure Eliezer's point holds even if you only consider the immediate purchasing power of each individual.

Let us define thefts A and B:

A : Steal 1 cent from each of 1e9 individuals. B : Steal 1e7 cents from 1 individual.

The claim here is that A has negligible disutility compared to B. However, we can define a new theft C as follows:

C: Steal 1e7 cents from each of 1e9 individuals.

Now, I don't discount the possibility that there are arguments to the contrary, but naively it seems that a C theft is 1e9 times as bad as a B theft. But a C theft is equivalent to 1e7 A thefts. So, necessarily, one of those A thefts must have been worse than a B theft - substantially worse. Eliezer's question is: if the first one is negligible, at what point do they become so much worse?

In response to comment by [deleted] on Rationality Quotes November 2012
Comment author: DanArmak 19 November 2012 03:17:08PM 0 points [-]

That's not how RoI works.

Why not? The investment here being the death of the donor.

Comment author: IainM 19 November 2012 03:47:05PM *  9 points [-]

The benefit is doubled in the second case, but the investment is much larger (obviously), so RoI is not doubled. In fact, the investment is more than doubled (you have to pay for two transplants instead of one, as well as killing someone), so the RoI plummets.

Comment author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 01 November 2012 04:28:10PM *  3 points [-]

Er, yes? I mean it's not like we're born knowing that cars behave like integers and outlet electricity doesn't, since neither of those things existed ancestrally.

Comment author: IainM 02 November 2012 12:44:27PM *  2 points [-]

Wait, what? We may not be born knowing what cars and electricity are, but I would be surprised if we weren't born with an ability (or the capacity to develop an ability) to partition our model of a car-containing section of universe into discrete "car" objects, while not being able to do the same for "electric current" objects.

Comment author: Bakkot 29 October 2012 12:48:35PM 4 points [-]

No, not quite. The distinction is subtle, but I'll try to lay it out.

there are statements that are true (semantically valid) but unprovable, and hence they provide a counterexample to "If X |=Y then X |- Y"

This is not the case. The problem is with the 'and hence': 'X ⊨ Y' should not be read as 'Y is true in X' but rather 'Y is true in every model of X'. There are statements which are true in the standard model of Peano arithmetic which are not entailed by it - that is, 'Y is true in the standard model of Peano arithmetic' is not the same as 'PA ⊨ Y'. So this is not a counterexample.

Rather, the notion of 'complete' in the incompleteness theorem is that a model is complete if for every statement, either the statement or its negation is entailed by the model (and hence provable by semantic completeness). Gödel's incompleteness theorem shows that no theory T containing PA is complete in this sense; that is, there statements S which are true in T but not entailed by it (and so not provable). This is because there are models of T in which S is not true: that is, systems in which every statement in T holds, but S does not. (These systems have some additional structure beyond that required by T.)

Wikipedia may do a better job of explaining this than I can at the moment.

Comment author: IainM 29 October 2012 03:40:09PM *  0 points [-]

I'll attempt to clarify a little, if that's alright. Given a particular well-behaved theory T, Gödel's (first!) incompleteness theorem exhibits a statement G that is neither provable nor disprovable in T - that is, neither G nor ¬G is syntactically entailed by T. It follows by the completeness theorem that there are models of T in which G is true, and models of T in which ¬G is true.

Now G is often interpreted as meaning "G is not provable in T", which is obviously true. However, this interpretation is an artifact of the way we've carefully constructed G, using a system of relations on Gödel numbers designed to carefully reflect the provability relations on statements in the language of T. But these Gödel numbers are elements of whatever model of T we're using, and our assumption that the relations used in the construction of G have anything to do with provability in T only apply if the Gödel numbers are from the usual, non-crazy model N of the natural numbers. There are unusual, very-much-crazy models of the natural numbers which are not N, however, and if we're using one of those then our relations are unintuitive and wacky and have nothing at all to do with provability in T, and in these G can be true or false as it pleases. So when we say "G is true", we actually mean "G is true if we're using the standard model of the natural numbers, which may or may not even be a valid model of T in the first place".

Comment author: Eliezer_Yudkowsky 25 October 2012 01:58:02AM 1 point [-]

Meditation:

It has been claimed that logic and mathematics is the study of which conclusions follow from which premises. But when we say that 2 + 2 = 4, are we really just assuming that? It seems like 2 + 2 = 4 was true well before anyone was around to assume it, that two apples equalled two apples before there was anyone to count them, and that we couldn't make it 5 just by assuming differently.

Comment author: IainM 29 October 2012 11:38:46AM *  3 points [-]

Well, strictly speaking we don't directly assume that 2+2=4. We have some basic assumptions about counting and addition, and it follows from these that 2+2=4. But that doesn't really avoid the objection, it just moves it down the chain.

Can I change these assumptions? Well, firstly it bears saying that if I do, I'm not really talking about counting or addition any more, in the same way that if I define "beaver" to mean "300 ton sub-Saharan lizard", I'm not really talking about beavers.

So suppose I change my assumptions about counting and addition such that it came out that 2+2=5. Would that mean that two apples added to two apples made five apples? Obviously not. It would mean that two* apples added* to two* apples made five* apples, where the starred words refer to altered concepts.

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