Comment author: Annoyance 21 March 2009 03:28:36PM 1 point [-]

Rationalists should WIN!

Rationalists have better definitions of "winning". They don't necessarily include triumphing in social wrestling matches.

Comment author: Nebu 13 December 2015 07:24:00AM 1 point [-]

Actually, I think "Rationalists should WIN" regardless of what their goals are, even if that includes social wrestling matches.

The "should" here is not intended to be moral prescriptivism. I'm not saying in an morally/ethically ideal world, rationalists would win. Instead, I'm using "should" to help define what the word "Rationalist" means. If some person is a rationalist, then given equal opportunity, resources, difficult-of-goal, etc., they will on average, probabilistically win more often than someone who was not a rationalist. And if they happen to be an evil rationalist, well that sucks for the rest of the universe, but that's still what "rationalist" means.

I believe this definitional-sense of "should" is also what the originator of the "Rationalists should WIN" quote intended.

Comment author: Annoyance 21 March 2009 03:29:39PM 2 points [-]

rationalists as people who make optimal plays versus rationalists as people who love truth and hate lies

It's only possible for us to systematically make optimal plays IF we have a sufficient grasp of truth. There's only an equivocation in the minds of people who don't understand that one goal is a necessary precursor for the other.

Comment author: Nebu 13 December 2015 07:20:47AM 1 point [-]

rationalists as people who make optimal plays versus rationalists as people who love truth and hate lies

It's only possible for us to systematically make optimal plays IF we have a sufficient grasp of truth. There's only an equivocation in the minds of people who don't understand that one goal is a necessary precursor for the other.

No, I think there is an equivocation here, though that's probably because of the term "people who love truth and hate lies" instead of "epistemic rationalist".

An epistemic rationalist wants to know truth and to eliminate lies from their mind. An instrumental rationalist wants to win, and one precursor to winning is to know truth and to eliminate lies from one's own mind.

However, someone who "loves truth and hates lies" doesn't merely want their own mind to filled with truth. They want for all minds in the universe to be filled with truth and for lies to be eliminated from all minds. This can be an impediment to "winning" if there are competing minds.

Comment author: MoreOn 23 February 2011 09:35:28PM 0 points [-]

Induction based on n=1 works sometimes, but not always. That was my point.

The problem with the horses of one color problem is that you are using sloppy verbal reasoning that hides an unjustified assumption that n > 1.

I'm not sure what you mean. I thought I stated it each time I was assuming n=1 and n=2.

Comment author: Nebu 13 December 2015 06:22:26AM 0 points [-]

The problem with the horses of one color problem is that you are using sloppy verbal reasoning that hides an unjustified assumption that n > 1.

I'm not sure what you mean. I thought I stated it each time I was assuming n=1 and n=2.

In the induction step, we reason "The first horse is the same colour as the horses in the middle, and the horses in the middle have the same colour as the last horse. Therefore, all n+1 horses must be of the same colour". This reasoning only works if n > 1, because if n = 1, then there are no "horses in the middle", and so "the first horse is the same colour as the horses in the middle" is not true.

Comment author: Armok_GoB 16 July 2011 12:22:17PM 8 points [-]

If a staple maximizer came in with a ship and stole some of the paperclip factories for remaking into staple factories, the paperclipper would probably expend resources to take revenge for game theoretical reasons, even if this cost paperclips.

Comment author: Nebu 11 December 2015 06:43:37AM 0 points [-]

I think this argument is misleading.

Re "for game theoretical reasons", the paperclipper might take revenge if it predicted that doing so would be a signalling-disincentive for other office-supply-maximizers from stealing paperclips. In other words, the paperclip-maximizer is spending paperclips to take revenge solely because in its calculation, this actually leads to the expected total number of paperclips going up.

In response to comment by [deleted] on The Blue-Minimizing Robot
Comment author: JamesAndrix 06 July 2011 10:04:35PM 1 point [-]

It seems that the narrative of unfriendly AI is only a risk if an AI were to have a true goal function, and many useful advances in artificial intelligence (defined in the broad sense) carry no risk of this kind.

What does it mean for a program to have intelligence if it does not have a goal? (or have components that have goals)

The point of any incremental intelligence increase is to let the program make more choices, and perhaps choices at higher levels of abstraction. Even at low intelligence levels, the AI will only 'do a good job' if the basis of those choices adequately matches the basis we would use to make the same choice. (a close match at some level of abstraction below the choice, not the substrate and not basic algorithms)

Creating 'goal-less' AI still has the machine making more choices for more complex reasons, and allows for non-obvious mismatches between what it does and what we intended it to do.

Yes, you can look at paperclip-manufacturing software and see that it is not a paper-clipper, but some component might still be optimizing for something else entirely. We can reject the anthropomorphically obvious goal and there can still be an powerful optimization process that affects the total system, at the expense of both human values and produced paperclips.

Comment author: Nebu 11 December 2015 05:31:04AM 0 points [-]

What does it mean for a program to have intelligence if it does not have a goal?

This is a very interesting question, thanks for making me think about it.

(Based on your other comments elsewhere in this thread), it seems like you and I are in agreement that intelligence is about having the capability to make better choices. That is, two agents given an identical problem and identical resources to work with, the agent that is more intelligent is more likely to make the "better" choice.

What does "better" mean here? We need to define some sort of goal and then compare the outcome of their choices and how closely those outcome matches those goals. I have a couple of disorganized thoughts here:

  • The goal is just necessary for us, outsiders, to compare the intelligence of the two agents. The goal is not necessary for the existence of intelligence in the agents if no one's interested in measuring their intelligence.
  • Assuming the agents are cooperative, you can temporarily assign subgoals. For example, perhaps you and I would like to know which one of us is smarter. You and I might have many different goals, but we might agree to temporarily take on a similar goal (e.g. win this game of chess, or get the highest amount of correct answers on this IQ test, etc.) so that our intelligence can be compared.
  • The "assigning" of goals to an intelligence strongly implies to me that goals are orthogonal to intelligence. Intelligence is the capability to fulfil any general goal, and it's possible for someone to be intelligent even if they do not (currently, or ever) have any goals. If we come up with a new trait called Sodadrinkability which is the capability to drink a given soda, one can say that I possess Sodadrinkability -- that I am capable of drinking a wide range of possible sodas provided to me -- even if I do not currently (or ever) have any sodas to drink.
Comment author: Nebu 10 October 2015 03:09:09AM *  1 point [-]

Feedback:

Need an example? Sure! I have two dice, and they can each land on any number, 1-6. I’m assuming they are fair, so each has probability of 1/6, and the logarithm (base 2) of 1/6 is about -2.585. There are 6 states, so the total is 6* (1/6) * 2.585 = 2.585. (With two dice, I have 36 possible combinations, each with probability 1/36, log(1/36) is -5.17, so the entropy is 5.17. You may have notices that I doubled the number of dice involved, and the entropy doubled – because there is exactly twice as much that can happen, but the average entropy is unchanged.) If I only have 2 possible states, such as a fair coin, each has probability of 1/2, and log(1/2)=-1, so for two states, (-0.5*-1)+(-0.5*-1)=1. An unfair coin, with a ¼ probability of tails, and a ¾ probability of heads, has an entropy of 0.81. Of course, this isn’t the lowest possible entropy – a trick coin with both sides having heads only has 1 state, with entropy 0. So unfair coins have lower entropy – because we know more about what will happen.

I've had to calculate information entropy for a data compression course, so I felt like I already knew the concepts you were trying to explain here, but I was not able to follow your explanation at all.

the logarithm (base 2) of 1/6 is about -2.585. There are 6 states, so the total is 6* (1/6) * 2.585 = 2.585.

The total what? Total entropy for the two dice that you have? For just one of those two dice? log(1/6) is a negative number, so why do I not see any negative numbers used in your equation? There are 6 states, so I guess that sort of explains why you're multiplying some figure by 6, but why are you dividing by 6?

If I only have 2 possible states, such as a fair coin, each has probability of 1/2, and log(1/2)=-1, so for two states, (-0.5*-1)+(-0.5*-1)=1.

Why do you suddenly switch from the notation 1/2 to the notation 0.5? Is that significant (they're referring to different concepts who coincidentally happen to have equal values)? If they actually refer to the same value, why do we have the positive value 1/2, but negative value -0.5?

Suggestion:

  • Do fair coin first, then fair dice, then trick coin.
  • Point out that a fair coin has 2 outcomes when flipped, each with equal probability, so it has entropy [-1/2 log2(1/2)] + [-1/2 log2(1/2)] = (1/2) + (1/2) = 1.
  • Point out a traditional fair dice has 6 outcomes when rolled, each of equal probability, and so it has entropy ∑n=1 to 6 of -1/6 log2(1/6) =~ 6 * -1/6 * -2.585 = 2.585.
  • Point out that a trick coin that always comes up heads has 1 outcome when flipped, so it has entropy -1 log2(1/1) = 0.
  • Point out that a trick coin that always comes up heads 75% of the time has entropy [-3/4 log2(3/4)]+[-1/4 log2(1/4)] =~ 0.311 + 0.5 = 0.811.
  • Consistently use the same notation for each example (I sort of got lazy and used ∑ for the dice to avoid writing out a value 6 times). In contrast, do not use 6 * (1/6) * 2.585 = 2.585 for one example (where all the factors are positive) and then (-0.5*-1)+(-0.5*-1)=1 for another example (where we rely on pairs of negative factors to become positive).
Comment author: entirelyuseless 01 September 2015 01:13:03PM 1 point [-]

It sounds like Jiro was saying that the Jester really does not assume that "The content of the boxes can be deduced from the the inscriptions." He just assumes "The inscriptions are either true or false," and it logically follows from what the inscriptions say that he can deduce the contents. So the problem wasn't making an assumption about how the contents could be discovered, but making an assumption that the inscriptions had to be either true or false.

Comment author: Nebu 11 September 2015 02:37:14AM 0 points [-]

Ok, thank you for that clarification.

Comment author: Jiro 26 August 2015 02:27:51PM 1 point [-]

In this situation, it is still a correct deduction to say "if the statements are true or false, then the content of the boxes is...." With these contents, these statements aren't true or false.

Comment author: Nebu 01 September 2015 07:58:23AM 0 points [-]

Sorry, it's not clear to me why you wrote this reply. Are you trying to dispute something I said, or are you bringing up an interesting observation for discussion, or what?

Comment author: Strange7 17 August 2014 11:19:44PM 1 point [-]

The king did, however, count on the Jester's assumption that the content of the boxes could be deduced from the inscriptions.

Comment author: Nebu 25 August 2015 04:09:07PM 2 points [-]

The King counted on the Jester making a deductive error in the second puzzle (namely inferring that the content of the boxes could be deduced from the inscriptions given what the King said), just like the Jester counted on the King making a deductive error in the first puzzle.

Comment author: Strange7 14 April 2014 02:34:53AM 0 points [-]

So, if someone came up to you and told you something that couldn't possibly be true, you'd say they weren't lying?

Comment author: Nebu 25 August 2015 04:07:16PM 0 points [-]

If someone came up to you with a puzzle involving transcriptions where there is an expectation that some of the inscriptions are true and some of the inscriptions are false, and nothing the person actually utters is false, then that person was not lying.

In contrast, if someone came up to me and gave me something that looks like a legal notice -- a scenario where there is NOT an expectation that the notice might be false -- and it turns out that the notice makes false claim, then that person is indeed "lying", especially if, when I take the notice and say "Thank you" and start to close my door, the guy says "Actually, you have to pay the fine immediately; you can't just mail it to the police station later" or whatever.

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