I have no more than glanced at the paper. The following may therefore be a dumb question, in which case I apologize.
It seems as if one of the following must be true. Which?
The arguments of this paper show that classical mechanics could never really have been a good way to model the universe, even if the universe had in fact precisely obeyed the laws of classical mechanics.
The arguments of this paper show that actually there's some logical incoherence in the very idea of a universe that precisely obeys the laws of classical mechanics.
The arguments of this paper don't apply to a universe that precisely obeys the laws of classical mechanics, because of some assumption it makes (a) explicitly or (b) implicitly that couldn't be true in such a universe.
The arguments of this paper don't exclude a classical universe either by proving it impossible or by making assumptions that already exclude a classical universe, and yet they somehow don't show that such a universe has to be modelled quantumly.
I'm confused.
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I assumed it was because it motivated people into becoming much more productive.
It looks like this has been an unpopular suggestion, but I wouldn't discount motivation completely. A lot of early 20th century economists thought centrally planned economies were a great idea, based on the evidence of how productive various centrally planned war economies had been. Presumably there's some explanation for why central planning works better (or doesn't fail as badly) with war economies compared with peacetime economies, and I've always suspected that people's motivation to help the country in wartime was probably one of the factors.