Comment author: JoshuaZ 16 November 2012 04:10:53AM 1 point [-]

I think there's a definitional issue here. Eugine is using "proof checker" to mean an algorithm that given a sequence of statements in an axiomatic system verifies that the proof is formally valid. You seem to mean by proof checker something like a process that goes through listing all valid statements in the system along with a proof of the statement.

Comment author: StevenLandsburg 16 November 2012 12:54:34PM 0 points [-]

JoshuaZ: No, I mean the former. The problem is that you have enough rules of inference to allow you to extract all logical consequences of your axioms, then that set of rules of inference is going to be too complicated to explain to any computer. (i.e. the rules of inference are non-recursive.)

Comment author: Eugine_Nier 16 November 2012 01:38:32AM 2 points [-]

Also, of course, to put this in the context of the original post, if we're talking about second order logic, then of course there can be no automated proof-checkers.

You appear to be confused here. The rest of your post is good.

Comment author: StevenLandsburg 16 November 2012 04:02:01AM 1 point [-]

I should have said this more carefully. If one allows enough rules of inference so that all the logical consequences of the axioms can be proved, then there are no automated proof checkers. So you can have proof checkers, but only at the cost of restricting the system so that not all logical consequences (i.e. implications that are true in every model) can be proved.

Comment author: Plasmon 15 November 2012 09:08:16AM 1 point [-]

Why do you imagine that the introduction of an axiomatic system would address this problem?

Because then the problem is not "Does this non-axiomatized stuff obey that theorem ?" but "Does that theorem follow from these axioms ?". One is a pure logic problem, and proofs may be checked by automated proof-checkers. The other directly or indirectly relies on the mathematician's intuition of the non-axiomatized subject in question, and can't be checked by automated proof-checkers.

Comment author: StevenLandsburg 15 November 2012 01:55:02PM 3 points [-]

Because then the problem is not "Does this non-axiomatized stuff obey that theorem ?" but "Does that theorem follow from these axioms ?". One is a pure logic problem, and proofs may be checked by automated proof-checkers. The other directly or indirectly relies on the mathematician's intuition of the non-axiomatized subject in question, and can't be checked by automated proof-checkers.

Except insofar as the mathematicians, unknown to each other, have different ideas of what constitutes a valid rule of inference.

A logical system is a mathematical obect. If the problem is that different mathematicians might think they're talking about the same object when they're really talking about different ones, then I don't see why logical systems, out of all mathematical objects, should be particularly exempt from this problem.

Also, of course, to put this in the context of the original post, if we're talking about second order logic, then of course there can be no automated proof-checkers.

Comment author: Plasmon 14 November 2012 03:24:20PM *  3 points [-]

mathematicians from Pythagoras through Dedekind had absolutely no problem talking about numbers in the absence of the Peano axioms.

So, they were lucky. It could have been that that-which-Pythagoras-calls-number was not that-which-Fibonacci-calls-numbers.

Are there absolutely no examples of cases where mathematicians disagreed about some theorem about some not-yet-axiomatized subject, and then it turns out the disagreement was because they were actually talking about different things?

(I know of no such examples, but I would be surprised it none exist)

Comment author: StevenLandsburg 14 November 2012 05:56:31PM 4 points [-]

Plasmon:

<i>So, they were lucky. It could have been that that-which-Pythagoras-calls-number was not that-which-Fibonacci-calls-numbers.</i>

Why do you imagine that the introduction of an axiomatic system would address this problem?

In response to Logical Pinpointing
Comment author: StevenLandsburg 14 November 2012 04:20:18PM 10 points [-]

Thanks for posting this. My intended comments got pretty long, so I converted them to a blog post <a href="http://www.thebigquestions.com/2012/11/14/accounting-for-numbers/">here</a>. The gist is that I don't think you've solved the problem, partly because second order logic is not logic (as explained in my post) and partly because you are relying on a theorem (that second order Peano arithmetic has a unique model) which relies on set theory, so you have "solved" the problem of what it means for numbers to be "out there" only by reducing it to the question of what it means for sets to be "out there", which is, if anything, a greater mystery.