It is not that these statements are "not generally valid", but that they are not included within the axiom system used by H. If we attempt to include them, there will be a new statement of the same kind which is not included.
Obviously such statements will be true if H's axiom system is true, and in that sense they are always valid.
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I'm not sure that my paradox even requires the proof system to prove it's own consistency.
But regardless, even if removing that does resolve the paradox, it's not a very satisfying resolution. Of course a crippled logic can't prove interesting things about Turing machines.
Your argument requires the proof system to prove it's own consistency. As we discussed before, your argument relies on the assumption that the implication
is available for all φ. If this were the case, your theory would prove itself consistent. Why? Because you could take the contrapositive
and substitute "0=1" for φ. This gives you
The premise "0≠1" holds. Therefore, the consequence "0=1 is not provable" also holds. At this point your theory is asserting its own consistency: everything is provable in an inconsistent theory.
You might enjoy reading about the Turing Machine proof of Gödel's first incompleteness theorem, which is closely related to your paradox.