That's interesting. I guess my next question is, how confident are we that this sequence has been undergoing close-to-neutral selection?
I ask because if it has been undergoing close-to-neutral selection, that implies that almost all possible mutations in that region are fitness-neutral. (Which is why my thoughts turned to "something is necessary, but it doesn't matter what". When you call that unlikely, is that because there's no known mechanism for it, or you just don't think there was sufficient evidence for the hypothesis, or something else?) But... according to this study they're not, which leaves me very confused. This doesn't even feel like I just don't know enough, it feels like something I think I know is wrong.
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= f037147d6e6c911a85753b9abdedda8d)
How do we know whether, by replacing the insert with a random sequence of base pairs the same length, there would be no developmental defect either?
There are several complications addressed in the article, which I did not describe. Anyway, using a "control vector" is considered trivial, and I believe they checked this.