I am not sure where our disagreement lies at the moment.
I'm not entirely sure either. I was just saying that a causal decision theorist will not be moved by Wildberger's reasoning, because he'll say that Wildberger is plugging in the wrong probabilities: when calculating an expectation, CDT uses not conditional probability distributions but surgically altered probability distributions. You can make that result in one-boxing if you assume backwards causation.
I think the point we're actually talking about (or around) might be the question of how CDT reasoning relates to you (a). I'm not sure that the causal decision theorist has to grant that he is in fact interpreting the problem as "not (a) but (b)". The problem specification only contains the information that so far, Omega has always made correct predictions. But the causal decision theorist is now in a position to spoil Omega's record, if you will. Omega has already made a prediction, and whatever the causal decision theorist does now isn't going to change that prediction. The fact that Omega's predictions have been absolutely correct so far doesn't enter into the picture. It just means that for all agents x that are not the causal decision theorist, P(x does A|Omega predicts that x does A) = 1 (and the same for B, and whatever value than 1 you might want for an imperfect predictor Omega).
About the way you intend (a), the causal decision theorist would probably say that's backward causation and refuse to accept it.
One way of putting it might be that the causal decision theorist simply has no way of reasoning with the information that his choice is predetermined, which is what I think you intend to convey with (a). Therefore, he has no way of (hypothetically) inferring Omega's prediction from his own (hypothetical) action (because he's only allowed to do surgery, not conditionalization).
Are you using choice to signify strongly free will?
No, actually. Just the occurrence of a deliberation process whose outcome is not immediately obvious. In both your examples, that doesn't happen: John's behavior simply depends on the arrival of the cab or his feeling of thirst, respectively. He doesn't, in a substantial sense, make a decision.
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Yes, experiments at the frontier of science are often unrepeatable, but that's just a selection effect, no? Those problems are interesting precisely because we have not nailed down all the cause-and-effect relationships yet. An enormous number of cause-and-effect rules are so well understood that they are not considered scientifically interesting anymore, and it is those rules that allow us to navigate the world, get to places on time, stay out of mortal danger, and so on. Of course there is random error as you say, but the error is not infinitely large.
Anyway, I keep picking this nit because the Russel quote says that our causal models of the world are not just imperfect but actually "obsolete and misleading," which sounds like an exaggeration.
Maybe he means something along the lines of same cause, same effect is just a placeholder for as long as all the things which matter stay the same, you get the same effect. After all, some things, such as time since the man invented fire and position relative to Neptune and so on and so forth cannot possibly be the same for two different events. And this in turn sort of means things which matter -> same effect is a circular definition. Maybe he means to say that the law of causality is not the actually useful principle for making predictions, while there are indeed repeatable experiments and useful predictions to be made.