I disagree that it's a more elegant solution. Suppose I say "While on vacation with a bunch of friends, Chris lost their money." I bet almost everyone would interpret "their" to mean "Chris and friends'" instead of "Chris's". Even when the meaning can be correctly deduced from context, using "they" in place of "he or she" as a singular referring pronoun would probably cause a significant delay in reading as the reader tries to figure out what "they" might be referring to, and whether it's an unintentional error.

In communities of people who prefer not to use either "he" or "she" to refer to themselves, they can set whatever community-specific rules they want. I have no objection to using "they" in that context, but it doesn't seem like a good general solution for the problem of unknown genders.

I really wonder how this sort of result applies to cultures that don't expect everyone to have high self-esteem. Such as say japan.

From professional experience (I've been a programmer since the 80's and was paid for it from the 90's onward) I agree with you entirely re. graphical representation. That doesn't keep generation after generation of tool vendors crowing that thanks to their new insight, programming will finally be made easy thanks to "visual this, that or the other". UML being the latest such to have a significant impact.

You have me pondering what we might gain from whipping up a Domain-Specific Language (say, in a DSL-friendly base language such as Ruby) to represent arguments in. It couldn't be too hard to bake some basics of Bayesian inference into that.

Actually, I guess it could be a bit less clear if you're not already used to thinking of all math as being about theorems derived from axioms which are premise-conclusion links

But that's not all that math is. Suppose we eventually prove that P!=NP. How did we pick the axioms that we used to prove it? (And suppose we pick the wrong axioms. Would that change the fact that P!=NP?) Why are we pretty sure today that P!=NP without having a chain of premise-conclusion links? These are all parts of math; they're just parts of math that we don't understand.

ETA: To put it another way, if you ask someone who is working on the P!=NP question what he's doing, he is not going to answer that he is trying to determine whether a specific set of axioms proves or disproves P!=NP. He's going to answer that he's trying to determine whether P!=NP. If those axioms don't work out, he'll just pick another set. There is a sense that the problem is about something that is not identified by any specific set of axioms that he happens to hold in his brain, that any set of axioms he does pick is just a map to a territory that's "out there". But according to your meta-ethics, there is no "out there" for morality. So why does it deserve to be called realism?

Perhaps more to the point, do you agree that there is a coherent meta-ethical position that does deserve to be called moral realism, which asserts that moral and meta-moral computations are about something outside of individual humans or humanity as a whole (even if we're not sure how that works)?

No. See other replies.