I would say that the orthogonality thesis does not necessarily imply moral non-realism... but some forms of moral non-realism do imply the orthogonality thesis, in which case rejecting the orthogonality thesis would require rejecting at least that particular kind of moral non-realism. This may cause moral non-realists of that variety to equate moral realism and a rejection of the OT.
For example, if you are a moral non-cognitivist, then according to the SEP, you believe that:
when people utter moral sentences they are not typically expressing states of mind which are beliefs or which are cognitive in the way that beliefs are. Rather they are expressing non-cognitive attitudes more similar to desires, approval or disapproval.
This would seem to imply the orthogonality thesis: different agents will have different desires and goals, and if goals have no inherent truth value and moral statements simply reflect our desires and goals, then there is no particular reason to expect agents with a higher intelligence to converge on the same goals/moral beliefs. They'll just keep their original desires/goals, since no amount of increased intelligence could reveal facts which would cause those desires/goals to change (with the possible exception of cases where increased intelligence reveals a goal to have been logically incoherent).
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This paper makes me think again how amazing it is that science made any progress at all, before the middle part of the 20th century. Science is completely based on induction, and nobody understood induction in any kind of rigorous way until about 1968, but still people managed to make scientific progress. Occam, Bacon, Hume, Popper and others were basically just hand-waving; thankfully this hand-waving was nearly enough correct that it enabled science, but it was still hand-waving.
I don't think it's fair to say that "nobody understood induction in any kind of rigorous way until about 1968." The linked paper argues that Solomonoff prediction does not justify Occam's razor, but rather that it gives us a specific inductive assumption. And such inductive assumptions had previously been rigorously studied by Carnap among others.
But even if we grant that assumption, I don't see why we should find it surprising that science made progress without having a rigorous understanding of induction. In general, successfully engaging in some activity doesn't require having a rigorous understanding of that activity, and making inductive inferences is something that comes very natural to human beings.
Moreover, it seems that algorithmic information theory has (at best) had extremely limited impact on actual scientific practice in the decades since the field was born. So even if it does constitute the first rigorous understanding of induction, the lesson seems to be that scientific progress does not require such an understanding.