Ah yes, that comparison makes sense.
The prologue to Guns, Germs, and Steel outlines what Diamond sees as the most common explanations for the differences between peoples, and then uses the rest of the book to show why they are wrong and to offer a different explanation.
...Probably the commonest explanation involves implicitly or explicitly assuming biological differences among peoples. In the centuries after A.D. 1500, as European explorers became aware of the wide differences among the world's peoples in technology and political organization, they assumed th
Devereaux’s quote there is similar to the argument that Diamond puts forward in the epilogue of his book. Diamond argues that the geography of Europe, with lots of mountains and peninsulas, encouraged the formation of lots of smaller countries, while the geography of China encouraged one large empire. So while one emperor could end Zheng He’s voyages, Europe’s geography encouraged the countries to compete and experiment. Columbus was Italian after all, but had to go to the competing kingdom of Spain to fund his voyage.
I agree that that is a harder question...
Thank you for bringing this up - I'm sure that many people have seen those arguments and rate Diamond lower because of them. I have read each of those reddit posts over the years and have disagreements with them, I do not believe that, in it’s entirety, Diamond’s work is characterized by cherry-picking.
I find that arguments against Guns, Germs and Steel tend to be specifically about two chapters of the book, and also knock Diamond for pushing a monocausual explanation instead of a multicausual one.
The first chapter that's most commonly criticized is the ep...
One problem I have with Diamond's theory is that I doubt that there is anything for it to explain. The Americas and Eurasia/Africa were essentially isolated from each other for about 15,000 years. In 1500 AD, the Americas were roughly 3500 years less advanced than Eurasia/Africa. That seems well within the random variation one would expect between two isolated instances of human cultural development over a 15,000 year time span. If you think there is still some remaining indication that the Americas were disadvantaged, the fact that the Americas are about half the size of Eurasia/Africa seems like a sufficient explanation.
I did not intend to imply that historians were writing racist explanations for why Europe was able to colonize most of the world - sorry if that is how it came across! Instead, I believe those views were common among mainstream society. Part of that is because there had not been a cohesive, insightful, and popular alternate explanation.
McNeill is indeed one of the few historians who were investigating this question - and unfortunately I haven't read any of his work. However, I don't think that Jared Diamond was just repeating McNeill's argument because the... (read more)